Summary:
Analogous estimating, also known as top-down estimating, uses historical data from a similar past project to provide a high-level estimate. It is less accurate but quicker and cheaper than other methods. This approach is most valuable in the early phases of a project life cycle when detailed information is scarce, but a rough estimate of cost or duration is needed for initial decision-making and feasibility checks.

Correct Option:

B. Concept:
This is the correct answer. During the concept phase, the project is just being initiated. There is minimal detail available about deliverables, resources, or specific activities. Analogous estimating provides a swift, high-level estimate based on analogous past projects, which is perfectly suited for this stage to evaluate the project's viability and secure initial approval without investing significant time in detailed planning.

Incorrect Option:

A. Transition:
This phase typically involves handing over the final project deliverables to the operational teams. By this late stage, detailed estimates based on actual project data should already be established and used, making high-level analogous estimates irrelevant.

C. Deployment:
This is part of the project's execution and closure stages, where the project's product is being implemented. Detailed bottom-up estimates and actual cost tracking are used here, not high-level analogous estimates.

D. Definition:
In the definition phase, detailed project planning occurs. While an analogous estimate from the concept phase might be a starting point, this phase requires more accurate estimating techniques, like bottom-up or parametric estimating, which rely on the detailed scope information developed during this stage.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.5 (Estimating).

Summary:
The project manager's role is primarily focused on the management and delivery of the project's objectives as defined in the project management plan. While benefits and the business case are crucial, they are ultimately the responsibility of the project sponsor. The project manager's key function is to integrate all aspects of the project into a coherent plan and then manage the team's work to execute that plan effectively.

Correct Option:

A. Coordinating the development of the project management plan.
This is a fundamental and key role of the project manager. The project management plan is the single, integrated document that defines how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. Coordinating its development by bringing together various inputs and specialist knowledge is a core project management activity.

Incorrect Option:

B. Conducting benefits realisation reviews.
Benefits realisation is typically managed by the sponsor or business change managers, as it occurs after the project's deliverables have been handed over and are in use. The project manager's focus is on delivering the output that will enable the benefit, not on measuring the benefit itself post-project.

C. Reviewing progress against success criteria and checking that the planned business benefits will be achieved.
While the project manager tracks progress against project objectives (like time and cost), the validation that business benefits will be achieved is a strategic concern that falls under the sponsor's accountability.

D. Authorising any changes to the business case.
The business case is the project's justification and is owned by the sponsor. Any significant changes to it would be authorised by the sponsor, not the project manager, as it directly impacts the project's viability and alignment with business strategy.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 2.5 (Project Management). It defines the project manager's role as managing the project team to achieve the project's objectives, with planning being a central activity.

Summary:
A portfolio is a collection of projects, programmes, and other work that is grouped together to facilitate effective strategic management. It is not defined by the relatedness of its components but by their collective contribution to achieving an organisation's strategic objectives. This portfolio may include unrelated projects and business-as-usual activities, all managed together to optimise resource allocation and overall strategic value.

Correct Option:

D. A grouping of an organisation's projects, programmes and related business-as-usual activities.
This is the most accurate and comprehensive definition. A portfolio is defined at the strategic level and encompasses all change initiatives (projects and programmes) alongside related business-as-usual activities. The key is that this grouping is managed as a whole to achieve strategic goals, not necessarily because the components are related to each other.

Incorrect Option:

A. A group of related projects, which may include business-as-usual activities, that delivers change.
This definition is more descriptive of a programme. A programme comprises related projects managed in a coordinated way to deliver benefits, whereas a portfolio's components do not need to be related.

B. A timetable of how project activities and project milestones are planned over a period of time.
This describes a project schedule, which is a planning and monitoring tool for a single project, not a portfolio.

C. A group of projects that represent the delivery of all, or a discrete part of a new capability.
This again describes a programme, which is a temporary structure to coordinate a set of related projects. A portfolio is a more permanent, strategic grouping that exists to oversee all such initiatives across the organisation.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 2.1 (Portfolio Management). It defines a portfolio as "a collection of projects, programmes and operational work that is managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives."

Summary:
Environmental considerations are a fundamental aspect of modern project management and corporate social responsibility. They are not limited to specific industries like construction or petrochemicals. Every project, regardless of its type or output, consumes resources, generates waste, and exists within a broader ecosystem and society. Therefore, identifying and managing environmental constraints and impacts is a universal requirement for all projects.

Correct Option:

D. All projects.
This is the correct answer. Environmental constraints, such as regulations, resource availability, waste disposal rules, and sustainability targets, can impact any project. An IT project, for example, must consider energy consumption of data centres, electronic waste from hardware, and the environmental policies of its hosting providers. Considering the environmental context is a core principle of responsible project management.

Incorrect Option:

A. Construction projects only.
This is too restrictive. While construction projects have obvious environmental impacts, they are not the only type of project with such considerations. This option ignores the environmental footprint of projects in other sectors.

B. Construction and petrochemical projects only.
This is also incorrect and limited. Although these industries face stringent environmental regulations, the principle applies universally. A marketing campaign or a software development project also has environmental aspects, such as paper usage or cloud server energy demands.

C. All but IT projects.
This is a common misconception. IT projects have a significant environmental impact, including energy use for development and operation, hardware manufacturing, and electronic waste. To exclude them is to ignore a major segment of modern project work.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.14 (Sustainability). It states that project professionals should "understand and embrace the concepts of sustainability and sustainable development in order to ensure that the outcomes of a project are robust in a changing world." This implies a universal application across all projects.

Summary:
A communication plan is a core project document that defines the methods, frequency, and recipients for all project information. Its primary benefit is ensuring the right information reaches the right people at the right time. This structured approach to communication directly supports good governance by ensuring stakeholders are informed, consulted, and engaged according to established standards and procedures, leading to better oversight and control.

Correct Option:

B. There will be greater adherence to the organisation's governance and standards.
A communication plan formalises how and when information is shared with key stakeholders, including governance bodies like a project board. By ensuring these groups receive timely and accurate reports (e.g., highlight reports, stage-end reports), the plan enforces compliance with the defined governance framework and reporting standards, making this its most direct benefit.

Incorrect Option:

A. The project is more likely to finish on time.
While effective communication can prevent misunderstandings and delays, this is an indirect benefit and not the primary purpose of the plan. On-time delivery is a result of many integrated factors, with the communication plan being just one supporting element.

C. The project will be less susceptible to uncontrolled change.
Change control is managed by a separate, formal process (change control process/board). A communication plan can be used to communicate changes, but it does not directly prevent uncontrolled change from occurring.

D. There will be more focus on what benefits the project will be delivering.
Benefits focus is driven by the business case and is the responsibility of the sponsor. The communication plan may include messaging about benefits, but its existence does not inherently create a greater focus on them; it is a tool for disseminating information, not defining strategic focus.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 4.6 (Communication). It states that communication management involves "defining the parties to be communicated with, the information to be communicated and the methods to be used," which is the essence of a plan. This structured approach is a key component of project governance.

Summary:
The project environment refers to the external and internal factors that influence a project’s execution and success. This includes organizational culture, stakeholders, resources, and external conditions like market or regulatory factors. Understanding the project environment helps in planning and managing projects effectively. Option C accurately captures this by describing it as the context within which a project is undertaken, encompassing all relevant influences and conditions.

Correct Option:

C - The context within which a project is undertaken
Option C is correct as it defines the project environment as the broader context, including internal factors (e.g., organizational structure, culture) and external factors (e.g., economic, social, or regulatory conditions).

This aligns with APM’s view that the environment shapes project delivery and decision-making.

It ensures project managers consider all influences, enabling better planning and risk management to achieve project objectives.

Incorrect Option:

A - The type of organisation concerned with implementation
Option A is incorrect because it narrowly focuses on the organization’s type (e.g., functional, matrix), which is only one aspect of the project environment.

The project environment encompasses broader factors like stakeholders, market conditions, and resources, not just organizational structure.

While organizational type influences implementation, it doesn’t fully describe the project environment as defined by APM’s framework for project management.

B - The structured method used to control the project
Option B is incorrect as it refers to project management methodologies (e.g., PRINCE2 or Agile), not the project environment.

The environment includes external and internal factors affecting the project, not the tools or methods used for control.

APM emphasizes that control methods are part of project management processes, separate from the contextual environment that shapes project constraints and opportunities.

D - An understanding of the risks involved in the project
Option D is incorrect because it focuses solely on risk understanding, which is a component of project management, not the project environment itself.

The environment includes risks but also broader elements like stakeholders, culture, and external conditions.

APM’s guidance highlights that risk management is a process within the project, not a definition of the environment in which the project operates.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
A decision gate is a critical point in a project’s lifecycle where stakeholders review progress and determine whether to continue, adjust, or terminate the project. It ensures alignment with objectives, particularly the business case, which justifies the project’s viability. Option B correctly identifies the decision gate’s purpose as assessing whether the project remains viable in line with the business case, ensuring resources are allocated effectively and goals are achievable.

Correct Option: B - A project is viable in line with the business case
Option B is correct as decision gates evaluate a project’s alignment with its business case, assessing viability, benefits, and justification for continuation.

APM emphasizes decision gates as checkpoints to confirm strategic fit, resource availability, and project feasibility.

They ensure the project delivers value and remains aligned with organizational objectives, preventing wasteful investment in non-viable projects.

Incorrect Option: A - The response to a risk is valid
Option A is incorrect because decision gates focus on overall project viability, not specifically validating risk responses.

Risk management is a separate process, with responses evaluated during risk reviews, not at decision gates.

APM’s framework indicates decision gates assess broader factors like benefits and costs, not just risk responses, which are handled within ongoing project management activities.

Incorrect Option: C - The project delivered against the success criteria
Option C is incorrect as assessing delivery against success criteria typically occurs at project closure or specific review stages, not decision gates.

Decision gates focus on forward-looking decisions about project continuation based on the business case.

APM notes that success criteria evaluation is part of performance monitoring, not the primary purpose of decision gates, which prioritize strategic alignment and viability.

Incorrect Option: D - Lessons were effectively learned during the project
Option D is incorrect because lessons learned are reviewed during project closure or specific retrospectives, not at decision gates.

Decision gates focus on viability and alignment with the business case, not post-project analysis.

APM’s guidance highlights that lessons learned contribute to knowledge management, but this is separate from the decision gate’s role in approving project progression or termination.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
A project change involves modifications to the agreed project scope, budget, or schedule, typically requiring formal approval. Options A, C, and D describe changes to scope or cost, which align with this definition. Option B, however, refers to a potential event (resource removal) that has not yet occurred, making it a risk rather than an actual change. Thus, B is the correct answer as it does not represent a project change.

Correct Option:

B - The potential for agreed resources to be removed from the project
Option B is correct because it describes a potential event, not an actual change to the project’s scope, cost, or schedule.

APM defines a project change as an approved or implemented modification, whereas “potential” resource removal is a risk or uncertainty.

Until the resource removal is confirmed and approved, it remains a risk, not a change, per APM’s change management principles.

Incorrect Option:

A - An approved omission from the agreed project scope
Option A is incorrect because an approved omission from the project scope is a formal change.

APM’s framework classifies scope changes, like omissions, as project changes requiring change control processes.

Such changes impact deliverables and require stakeholder approval, fitting the definition of a project change, unlike the potential event in Option B.

C - A requirement for extra expenditure to cover increased supplier costs
Option C is incorrect as it describes a change involving additional expenditure due to supplier cost increases.

APM considers budget adjustments as project changes, managed through formal change control to ensure alignment with the business case.

This requirement directly affects the project’s financial baseline, making it a clear example of a project change, not a potential event.

D - The removal of work packages from the agreed project scope
Option D is incorrect because removing work packages from the project scope constitutes a formal change.

APM’s change management process includes scope modifications, like work package removal, which require approval and documentation.

This directly alters the project’s deliverables, distinguishing it from Option B’s potential resource issue, which lacks confirmation or implementation.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
Leadership in project management involves guiding, motivating, and aligning the team toward project goals. It emphasizes fostering relationships, inspiring individuals, and promoting the project vision to ensure success. Option C, maintaining constant tight control, does not align with leadership functions, as it reflects a controlling management style rather than leadership, which focuses on empowerment and vision. Thus, C is the correct answer as it is not a function of leadership.

Correct Option:

C - Maintaining constant tight control
Option C is correct because leadership focuses on inspiring and empowering teams, not enforcing tight control.

APM emphasizes leadership as fostering collaboration, motivation, and vision alignment, while control is a management function.

Constant tight control can demotivate teams and stifle innovation, contradicting leadership principles that encourage trust and autonomy to achieve project objectives effectively.

Incorrect Option:

A - Reinforcing positive relationships
Option A is incorrect as reinforcing positive relationships is a core leadership function.

APM highlights that leaders build trust and collaboration among team members and stakeholders to ensure project success.

Positive relationships enhance communication and conflict resolution, aligning with leadership’s role in creating a supportive team environment, making this a valid leadership function, unlike Option C.

B - Inspiring the individual
Option B is incorrect because inspiring individuals is a key leadership function.

APM’s framework notes that leaders motivate team members by aligning their efforts with project goals and fostering enthusiasm.

Inspiration encourages commitment and high performance, distinguishing leadership from management tasks like control, making this a clear leadership function, in contrast to Option C’s controlling approach.

D - Promoting the project vision
Option D is incorrect as promoting the project vision is a fundamental leadership function.

APM emphasizes that leaders communicate the project’s purpose and goals to align stakeholders and teams.

By promoting the vision, leaders ensure clarity and commitment, driving project success, which contrasts with Option C’s focus on control, which is more aligned with management than leadership.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
Consistent communication in a project ensures stakeholders receive clear, timely, and relevant information, reducing misunderstandings and aligning expectations. Effective communication requires planning and structure to meet stakeholder needs. Option C, which emphasizes planned communication using an approved framework, best supports consistency by ensuring messages are structured, targeted, and aligned with project objectives. This contrasts with other options that either limit communication, overload stakeholders, or discourage feedback.

Correct Option:

C - Communication is planned in advance and all messages delivered use the approved framework
Option C is correct as it promotes consistency through structured, planned communication using an approved framework.

APM emphasizes that a communication plan ensures messages are clear, timely, and tailored to stakeholders’ needs.

An approved framework standardizes delivery, reducing confusion and ensuring alignment with project goals, making it the most effective approach for consistent communication across the project lifecycle.

Incorrect Option:

A - Only transmitting information that stakeholders have requested, ensuring that any excess information is kept to a minimum
Option A is incorrect as limiting communication to only requested information may omit critical updates stakeholders need.

APM’s guidance stresses proactive communication to keep stakeholders informed, not just reactive responses.

This approach risks inconsistency, as it depends on stakeholders’ requests rather than a structured plan, potentially leading to gaps in information sharing and misalignment with project objectives.

B - Communication is carried out en-masse ensuring that all stakeholders get all information
Option B is incorrect because mass communication overwhelms stakeholders with irrelevant information, reducing clarity.

APM advocates for targeted communication tailored to stakeholder needs, not blanket distribution.

En-masse communication lacks focus, leading to inconsistency in understanding and engagement, as stakeholders may ignore or misinterpret non-relevant information, undermining effective project communication.

D - Communicating information on a one-way basis reducing the need for stakeholders to waste their time providing feedback
Option D is incorrect as one-way communication excludes stakeholder feedback, which is vital for alignment and issue resolution.

APM emphasizes two-way communication to ensure clarity and stakeholder engagement.

This approach risks inconsistency, as it ignores stakeholder input, potentially leading to misunderstandings and unaddressed concerns, contrary to the structured, inclusive communication needed for project success.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
Quality management in projects ensures deliverables meet defined standards and stakeholder expectations. Determining applicable quality standards and their application involves setting the foundation for quality processes. Option A, quality planning, best describes this activity, as it focuses on identifying relevant standards, defining quality criteria, and planning how to achieve them. This contrasts with other options, which involve implementation, monitoring, or broader organizational approaches rather than planning.

Correct Option:

A - Quality planning
Option A is correct as quality planning involves identifying relevant quality standards and determining how they apply to the project.

APM’s framework highlights that quality planning defines quality criteria, methods, and responsibilities to meet stakeholder expectations.

This process ensures a proactive approach to quality, setting the stage for assurance and control activities by establishing clear standards and plans for achieving them.

Incorrect Option:

B - Quality assurance
Option B is incorrect because quality assurance focuses on ensuring processes are followed to meet quality standards, not defining them.

APM notes that assurance involves audits and reviews to verify process compliance, occurring after quality planning.

Determining standards is a planning activity, not assurance, which monitors ongoing adherence to the established quality plan, making it distinct from this task.

C - Total quality
Option C is incorrect as total quality refers to an organizational philosophy of continuous improvement, not a specific project activity.

APM’s project management framework does not define total quality as a distinct process but focuses on project-specific quality management.

This option is too broad and not specific to determining standards, unlike quality planning, which directly addresses this task.

D - Quality control
Option D is incorrect because quality control involves monitoring and verifying deliverables against defined standards, not setting them.

APM emphasizes control as inspecting outputs and correcting defects, which occurs after planning.

Determining applicable standards is a proactive planning task, not a reactive control process, making quality planning the appropriate activity for this responsibility.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
Benefits management is the process of identifying, planning, and ensuring the delivery of a project’s intended benefits, which justify the project’s investment. It continues beyond project completion to track and confirm that benefits are achieved. Option C, “realised,” is correct as benefits management ends when the benefits are fully achieved and delivered to stakeholders, aligning with the project’s business case, unlike the other options, which represent earlier stages.

Correct Option:

C - Realised
Option C is correct because benefits management extends until benefits are fully realised, meaning they are achieved and measurable.

APM’s framework states that benefits management ensures the project delivers its intended outcomes, often post-project, through tracking and verification.

Realisation confirms the business case’s value is delivered, marking the end of the benefits management process, unlike earlier stages like defining or quantifying benefits.

Incorrect Option:

A - Defined
Option A is incorrect as defining benefits occurs early in benefits management during planning.

APM notes that benefits are identified and documented in the business case, but management continues to track realisation.

Ending at definition would neglect monitoring and ensuring benefits are achieved, which is critical to the process, making this option too early in the benefits management lifecycle.

B - Quantified
Option B is incorrect because quantifying benefits, where benefits are measured or assigned values, is part of planning, not the end of benefits management.

APM emphasizes that after quantification, benefits must be tracked and realised.

Stopping at quantification ignores the ongoing process of ensuring benefits are delivered, which extends beyond project completion, unlike realisation, which marks the process’s conclusion.

D - Conceived
Option D is incorrect as conceiving benefits refers to their initial ideation, an early stage in benefits management.

APM’s guidance highlights that benefits management involves planning, tracking, and realising benefits, not just conceptualising them.

Ending at conception overlooks the critical steps of defining, quantifying, and ensuring benefits are achieved, making this option far too preliminary compared to realisation.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/