Summary
Benefits realization involves ensuring a project’s intended outcomes are achieved, often extending beyond project completion. While benefits are identified and planned earlier, their realization typically occurs after the project’s deliverables are implemented. Option D, the extended life cycle, is correct as it refers to the phase post-project where benefits are tracked and realized, aligning with APM’s emphasis on measuring outcomes after deployment to confirm the business case’s value.

Correct Option:

D - The extended life cycle
Option D is correct as benefits realization most commonly occurs in the extended life cycle, after project closure.

APM’s framework notes that this phase focuses on tracking and measuring benefits to ensure they are fully achieved.

Post-project, stakeholders assess whether outcomes match the business case, making the extended life cycle the primary period for benefits realization, unlike earlier phases focused on planning or delivery.

Incorrect Option:

A - The start of deployment
Option A is incorrect as the start of deployment focuses on implementing deliverables, not realizing benefits.

APM indicates that benefits realization occurs after deliverables are in use, typically post-project.

At deployment’s start, benefits are still being planned or monitored, not fully realized, making this phase too early for the primary realization of benefits compared to the extended life cycle.

B - The end of deployment
Option B is incorrect because, while some benefits may begin to emerge at the end of deployment, most are realized later.

APM’s guidance highlights that benefits realization often extends into the post-project phase, as outcomes need time to materialize.

The end of deployment marks deliverable handover, not the full realization of benefits, which typically occurs in the extended life cycle.

C - The end of the concept phase prior to handover

Option C is incorrect as the concept phase involves defining and planning benefits, not realizing them.

APM notes that the concept phase establishes the business case, with realization occurring post-project.

Benefits cannot be realized before implementation or handover, making this option far too early in the project life cycle compared to the extended life cycle where realization is most common.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
A project manager’s effectiveness depends on understanding and managing factors that influence the project’s success. This includes both internal elements (e.g., team dynamics, resources) and external factors (e.g., stakeholders, market conditions). Option A correctly emphasizes the need to consider both environments to ensure alignment with project goals and stakeholder expectations, unlike the other options, which either limit the scope or focus on specific external aspects.

Correct Option:
A - Must take into consideration the internal and external environments Option A is correct as effective project management requires addressing both internal (e.g., team, resources) and external (e.g., stakeholders, regulations) environments.

APM’s framework highlights that project managers must balance these factors to mitigate risks and align with the business case.

Considering both environments ensures comprehensive decision-making, stakeholder engagement, and adaptability, enabling the project manager to deliver successful outcomes effectively.

Incorrect Option:

B - Need only deal with the internal environment since the sponsor will deal with the external environment
Option B is incorrect as it limits the project manager’s role to the internal environment, ignoring external factors.

APM emphasizes that project managers must engage with both internal and external environments, as sponsors may not fully handle external issues.
Excluding external considerations like stakeholders or regulations reduces effectiveness, as the project manager must address all influences impacting project success.

C - Should manage the external stakeholders and external environment
Option C is incorrect because it focuses solely on external stakeholders and environments, neglecting internal factors.

APM’s guidance notes that effective project management balances internal (e.g., team, processes) and external (e.g., stakeholders, market) elements.

Ignoring internal dynamics like resources or team performance limits the project manager’s ability to deliver, making this option incomplete compared to Option A’s holistic approach.

D - Must liaise with regulating bodies to ensure requirements include the latest legislation
Option D is incorrect as it narrowly focuses on regulatory liaison, which is only one aspect of external management.

APM states that project managers must consider broader internal and external factors, not just legislation.

While compliance is important, effectiveness requires managing all project influences, including team dynamics and stakeholder needs, making Option A’s comprehensive approach more appropriate.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
A portfolio is a collection of projects, programmes, and related activities managed to achieve strategic objectives. It encompasses both change initiatives and ongoing business-as-usual operations. Option D best defines a portfolio by including projects, programmes, and business-as-usual activities, aligning with APM’s view of portfolio management as a coordinated approach to optimize resource allocation and strategic alignment, unlike the other options, which are either too narrow or unrelated.

Correct Option:

D - Grouping of an organisation's projects, programmes and related business-as-usual activities
Option D is correct as it defines a portfolio as a comprehensive collection of projects, programmes, and business-as-usual activities.

APM’s framework emphasizes portfolio management as coordinating these elements to achieve strategic goals and optimize resources.

This broad scope ensures alignment with organizational objectives, distinguishing it from narrower definitions that exclude ongoing operations or focus solely on projects.

Incorrect Option:

A - Group of related projects, which may include business-as-usual activities, that delivers change
Option A is incorrect because it limits the portfolio to related projects and change delivery, omitting programmes.

APM notes that portfolios include projects, programmes, and business-as-usual activities, not just change-focused initiatives.

This definition is too narrow, as portfolios encompass a broader scope to align all organizational activities, not just related projects or change initiatives.

B - Timetable of how project activities and project milestones are planned over a period of time
Option B is incorrect as it describes a project schedule, not a portfolio.

APM’s guidance defines a portfolio as a collection of projects, programmes, and operations, not a timetable.

Schedules are tools for managing individual projects, whereas portfolios focus on strategic coordination across multiple initiatives, making this option unrelated to the concept of a portfolio.

C - Group of projects that represent the delivery of all, or a discrete part of a new capability
Option C is incorrect as it focuses only on projects delivering new capabilities, excluding programmes and business-as-usual activities.

APM emphasizes that portfolios include a wider scope, encompassing all organizational initiatives, not just capability-focused projects.

This definition is too restrictive, missing the comprehensive nature of portfolios that integrate ongoing operations and strategic alignment.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
Once a change is approved in a project, it must be formally documented and managed to ensure proper implementation and tracking. The issue log, which records and tracks issues including approved changes, should be updated immediately to reflect the change’s status and impact. Option C is correct, as updating the issue log ensures the change is integrated into project management processes, unlike the other options, which serve different purposes.

Correct Option:

C - Update the issue log
Option C is correct as approved changes are recorded in the issue log to track their implementation and impact.

APM’s framework emphasizes that the issue log captures changes as they often arise from issues requiring resolution.

Updating the issue log ensures stakeholders are informed, and the change is managed systematically, maintaining project control and alignment with the approved scope, cost, or schedule.

Incorrect Option:

A - Update change log
Option A is incorrect because, while a change log may track change requests, APM’s guidance prioritizes the issue log for approved changes.

The issue log captures issues and their resolutions, including approved changes, for ongoing management.

A change log, if used, is secondary and less immediate, as the issue log ensures integration into broader project issue tracking and control processes.

B - Update the risk register
Option B is incorrect as the risk register tracks potential risks, not approved changes.

APM notes that changes may introduce new risks, but these are assessed separately after approval.

Updating the risk register is a subsequent step, not the immediate action, which focuses on recording the approved change in the issue log to ensure proper management and implementation.

D - Update lessons learned
Option D is incorrect because lessons learned are updated during or after project phases, not immediately after a change approval.

APM’s framework emphasizes capturing lessons for future improvement, not for tracking approved changes.

The issue log is the primary tool for recording and managing changes, making it the immediate action, while lessons learned are documented later for reflection.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
A procurement strategy outlines the overarching approach to acquiring goods, services, or resources for a project, aligning with its objectives and constraints. It is not a detailed specification, schedule, or operational requirement but a high-level plan guiding procurement decisions. Option D is correct, as it describes the procurement strategy as a high-level approach, consistent with APM’s emphasis on strategic planning to ensure efficient and effective procurement processes.

Correct Option:

D - High-level approach
Option D is correct as a procurement strategy is a high-level plan defining how procurement aligns with project goals.

APM’s framework emphasizes that it outlines principles, methods, and sourcing approaches, not detailed tasks or specifications.

This strategic approach ensures cost-effectiveness, risk management, and stakeholder alignment, guiding procurement decisions throughout the project lifecycle, unlike the more specific or operational focus of the other options.

Incorrect Option:

A - Technical specification
Option A is incorrect as a technical specification details the technical requirements for goods or services, not the overall procurement approach.

APM notes that specifications are part of procurement execution, not the strategy itself.

A procurement strategy is broader, focusing on high-level planning and sourcing methods, making this option too specific and operational compared to the strategic nature of Option D.

B - Day-to-day requirement
Option B is incorrect because day-to-day requirements relate to operational tasks, not the strategic procurement approach.

APM’s guidance defines a procurement strategy as a high-level plan, not daily activities or routine needs.

Day-to-day requirements may stem from the strategy’s implementation but are not the strategy itself, which focuses on overarching goals and methods, unlike the operational focus of this option.

C - Detailed timetable
Option C is incorrect as a detailed timetable pertains to scheduling, not the procurement strategy.

APM emphasizes that a procurement strategy outlines high-level approaches, not specific timelines or schedules.

While procurement activities may follow a schedule, the strategy itself is a broader plan for sourcing and supplier management, making this option too narrow compared to the strategic focus of Option D.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
Clearly defined success criteria at handover ensure that project deliverables meet stakeholder expectations and allow for effective evaluation of project outcomes. They provide a measurable basis for assessing whether the project has achieved its objectives. Statements 1 (satisfying the client) and 2 (effective evaluation) directly relate to this, making Option A correct. Statements 3 and 4 are less relevant, as planning occurs earlier, and change cannot always be avoided.

Correct Option:

A - 1 and 2
Option A is correct as statements 1 and 2 highlight the importance of success criteria at handover.

Statement 1: Clear criteria ensure deliverables meet client expectations, enhancing satisfaction.

Statement 2: Criteria enable effective evaluation by providing measurable benchmarks for success.

APM’s framework emphasizes that success criteria at handover confirm deliverable quality and project achievement, ensuring alignment with the business case and stakeholder needs.

Incorrect Option:

B - 1 and 3
Option B is incorrect because statement 3 (work can be effectively planned) is not directly tied to handover.

APM notes that planning occurs earlier in the project lifecycle, not at handover, which focuses on delivery and evaluation.

While statement 1 (client satisfaction) is valid, statement 3 is irrelevant to handover, making this option less accurate than Option A, which correctly pairs statements 1 and 2.

C - 2 and 3
Option C is incorrect as statement 3 (effective planning) relates to earlier project phases, not handover.

APM’s guidance indicates that success criteria at handover support evaluation (statement 2) but not planning, which is done pre-execution.

Statement 2 is valid, but pairing it with statement 3, which is irrelevant to handover’s focus on delivery and assessment, makes this option incorrect compared to Option A.

D - 2 and 4
Option D is incorrect because statement 4 (change can generally be avoided) is not a primary outcome of success criteria at handover.

APM emphasizes that success criteria guide evaluation and client satisfaction, not change avoidance, which is managed separately.

While statement 2 (effective evaluation) is valid, statement 4 is inaccurate, making Option A, with statements 1 and 2, the correct choice.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
Parametric estimating uses statistical relationships between historical data and variables to predict project costs or durations. Its prime advantage lies in its accuracy when reliable data and parameters are available. Option A is correct, as parametric estimating leverages mathematical models to provide precise estimates, unlike other options that either misalign with its strengths (e.g., speed or independence from data) or describe other methods (e.g., detailed information for analytical estimating).

Correct Option:

A - Accuracy
Option A is correct as parametric estimating’s prime advantage is its accuracy.

APM’s framework highlights that it uses statistical models and historical data to produce reliable estimates for cost, time, or resources.

When parameters are well-defined, it provides precise predictions, outperforming less data-driven methods, making accuracy its key strength, especially for projects with quantifiable variables and established relationships.

Incorrect Option:

B - Ability to deal with detailed information
Option B is incorrect as handling detailed information is more characteristic of analytical estimating, not parametric.

APM notes that parametric estimating relies on high-level parameters and statistical relationships, not granular data analysis.

It uses simplified models for efficiency, making it less suited for detailed breakdowns compared to analytical methods, which focus on specific project components, unlike Option A’s focus on accuracy.

C - Independence from historic data
Option C is incorrect because parametric estimating depends heavily on historical data to establish statistical relationships.

APM’s guidance emphasizes that it uses past project data to model estimates, not independence from it.

This reliance ensures accuracy but contradicts the idea of independence, making this option inaccurate compared to Option A, which correctly identifies accuracy as the primary advantage.

D - Speed
Option D is incorrect as speed is a secondary benefit of parametric estimating, not its prime advantage.

APM highlights that while parametric methods can be faster than detailed analytical approaches, their main strength is accuracy through data-driven models.

Speed is more associated with analogous estimating, making Option A’s focus on accuracy the more accurate choice for parametric estimating’s primary benefit.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
A review tied to the phases of the project life cycle assesses progress and determines whether to proceed to the next phase. Option A, gate review, is correct as it is conducted at key stage boundaries to evaluate project viability and alignment with objectives. Unlike other options, gate reviews are specifically linked to life cycle phases, ensuring structured decision-making throughout the project, per APM’s framework.

Correct Option:

A - Gate review
Option A is correct as gate reviews are conducted at the end of project life cycle phases to assess progress and viability.

APM’s framework emphasizes gate reviews as decision points to approve progression, ensuring alignment with the business case.

They evaluate deliverables, risks, and objectives, directly linking to phase transitions, making them the review type most closely associated with the project life cycle.

Incorrect Option:

B - Learning review
Option B is incorrect as learning reviews focus on capturing lessons for future projects, not phase-specific evaluations.

APM notes that learning reviews occur at project closure or key milestones, not consistently across life cycle phases.

They aim to improve processes, not to gate progression, making them less tied to the project life cycle compared to gate reviews.

C - Handover review
Option C is incorrect as handover reviews occur specifically at project completion to transfer deliverables to the client or operations.

APM’s guidance indicates they are not tied to all life cycle phases but to the final handover stage.

This specificity limits their scope compared to gate reviews, which are conducted across multiple phases to manage project progression.

D - Audit review
Option D is incorrect as audit reviews assess compliance or performance, not necessarily aligning with life cycle phases.

APM defines audits as independent evaluations of processes or finances, conducted at any time, not phase-specific.

Unlike gate reviews, which are structured to align with phase transitions, audit reviews lack a direct link to the project life cycle’s progression.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
A risk register is a tool used in project management to document and manage risks throughout the project lifecycle. It records details of identified risks, their potential impact, and the actions taken to mitigate or manage them. Option D is correct, as it accurately describes the risk register’s purpose as a comprehensive record of risks, their impacts, and management actions, aligning with APM’s risk management framework.

Correct Option:

D - Record of risks, their impact and the actions taken to manage them
Option D is correct as the risk register serves as a centralized document capturing identified risks, their potential impacts, and mitigation actions.

APM’s framework emphasizes that it tracks risk details, including probability, impact, and response strategies, to support effective risk management.

This ensures stakeholders have a clear overview of risks and actions, facilitating proactive management throughout the project lifecycle.

Incorrect Option:

A - Structured process for risk identification
Option A is incorrect as the risk register is not a process but a tool for recording risks.

APM notes that risk identification is part of the risk management process, while the register documents the outcomes.

It captures risks after identification, not the process itself, making this option less accurate than Option D, which correctly defines the register’s purpose.

B - Record of the ownership of risk and issue management actions
Option B is incorrect as it focuses only on ownership, which is just one element of the risk register.

APM’s guidance states that the register includes risks, impacts, and actions, not just ownership details.

While ownership is recorded, the primary purpose is broader, making Option D’s comprehensive description of risks, impacts, and actions more accurate.

C - Means of assessing the likelihood and impact of all of the risks
Option C is incorrect as the risk register records assessments, not performs them.

APM emphasizes that likelihood and impact assessments occur during risk analysis, with results documented in the register.

The register’s purpose is to store this information, not to conduct assessments, making Option D’s focus on recording risks, impacts, and actions the correct choice.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
Scope management involves defining, identifying, controlling, and verifying the project’s scope to ensure deliverables align with objectives. It focuses on what is included and excluded in the project. Option C, delivering, is not a core scope management activity, as it pertains to execution and delivery processes, not scope definition or control. Option C is correct, as scope management does not include delivering, unlike defining, identifying, and controlling.

Correct Option:

C - Delivering
Option C is correct as delivering is not a scope management activity but part of project execution or delivery processes.

APM’s framework emphasizes scope management as defining, identifying, controlling, and verifying scope, not implementing deliverables.

Delivery involves producing outputs, managed through other processes like schedule or resource management, making it distinct from scope management’s focus on establishing and maintaining scope boundaries.

Incorrect Option:

A - Defining
Option A is incorrect as defining the scope is a core activity of scope management.

APM notes that defining involves specifying deliverables, objectives, and boundaries in the project scope statement.

This ensures clarity on what is included or excluded, making it a fundamental part of scope management, unlike delivering, which focuses on execution rather than scope establishment.

B - Identifying
Option B is incorrect because identifying requirements and deliverables is a key scope management activity.

APM’s guidance highlights that identifying involves gathering stakeholder needs and detailing work packages.

This process ensures all necessary elements are included in the scope, distinguishing it from delivering, which is about producing outputs, not identifying what constitutes the project’s scope.

D - Controlling
Option D is incorrect as controlling is a critical scope management activity.

APM emphasizes that scope control involves monitoring and managing changes to prevent scope creep.

It ensures the project remains aligned with the agreed scope, unlike delivering, which focuses on producing deliverables and is managed through other project processes, not scope management.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
A risk register is a tool that documents key details about identified project risks to support effective risk management. It includes information such as risk priority, ownership, and response strategies to ensure risks are tracked and mitigated. Option D is correct, as it lists priority (2), ownership (3), and responses (4) as documented elements, aligning with APM’s guidance, while analysis is part of the process, not a recorded item.

Correct Option:

D - 2, 3 and 4
Option D is correct as the risk register documents priority (2), ownership (3), and responses (4).

APM’s framework states that priority ranks risks by likelihood and impact, ownership assigns responsibility, and responses outline mitigation strategies.

These elements ensure risks are systematically tracked and managed, providing a clear record for stakeholders to monitor and address risks throughout the project lifecycle.

Incorrect Option:

A - 1, 3 and 4
Option A is incorrect because analysis (1) is a process, not a documented item in the risk register.

APM notes that analysis (assessing likelihood and impact) informs the register’s content, like priority and responses, but is not recorded itself.

Ownership (3) and responses (4) are included, but omitting priority (2) makes this option less accurate than Option D.

B - 1, 2 and 4
Option B is incorrect as analysis (1) is not documented in the risk register.

APM’s guidance emphasizes that the register records outcomes like priority (2) and responses (4), not the analysis process itself.

While priority and responses are valid, excluding ownership (3), a key element for accountability, makes this option incomplete compared to Option D’s comprehensive list.

C - 1, 2 and 3
Option C is incorrect because analysis (1) is not a documented item in the risk register.

APM highlights that priority (2) and ownership (3) are recorded, but analysis is a process informing these entries.

Excluding responses (4), which detail mitigation actions, makes this option less accurate than Option D, which correctly includes priority, ownership, and responses.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/

Summary
Successful risk identification requires understanding the project’s goals to pinpoint potential threats and opportunities effectively. Knowing the project objectives allows the team to align risk identification with what the project aims to achieve. Option B is correct, as it emphasizes the importance of project objectives as the minimum knowledge needed, per APM’s risk management framework, unlike other options, which are secondary or unrelated to effective risk identification.

Correct Option:

B - Project objectives
Option B is correct as knowing project objectives is essential for effective risk identification.

APM’s framework emphasizes that objectives provide context to identify risks that could impact deliverables, scope, or success.

Understanding objectives ensures the team focuses on relevant threats and opportunities, making it the minimum knowledge required to align risk identification with project goals, unlike other options that are less critical.

Incorrect Option:

A - Skills of the team delivering the project
Option A is incorrect as team skills, while important for execution, are not the minimum requirement for risk identification.

APM notes that risk identification focuses on project objectives, not team capabilities, which are assessed separately.

Skills may influence risk response but are secondary to understanding objectives, which provide the context for identifying relevant risks, making this option less essential than Option B.

C - Amount of time allowed for risk identification to take place
Option C is incorrect as the time allowed for risk identification is a logistical detail, not a minimum requirement.

APM’s guidance prioritizes understanding project objectives to identify risks effectively, not time constraints.

While time management aids the process, it does not provide the context needed for risk identification, unlike objectives, which are critical for aligning risks with project goals.

D - Location of the venue where risk identification will take place
Option D is incorrect as the venue location is irrelevant to effective risk identification.

APM emphasizes that risk identification depends on understanding project objectives, not physical settings.

The location may facilitate meetings but does not influence the ability to identify risks, making it far less critical than knowing the project objectives, which provide the necessary context for risk assessment.

Reference:
Association for Project Management (APM). Project Management Qualification (PMQ) Study Guide. Available at: https://www.apm.org.uk/qualifications-and-training/project-management-qualification/