Salesforce-Platform-Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect Practice Test Questions

226 Questions


A Salesforce partner intends to build a commercially available application by creating a managed package for distribution through AppExchange. What two types of environments can the partner use for development of the managed package? (Choose 2 answers)


A. Developer Edition


B. Partner Developer Edition


C. Developer sandbox


D. Developer Pro sandbox





A.
  Developer Edition

B.
  Partner Developer Edition

Explanation:

Developing a managed package for distribution on the AppExchange requires a dedicated and isolated environment that is specifically designed for this purpose. The environment must support the creation of a namespace, packaging of components, and testing of the installable package.

A. Partner Developer Edition ✅
This is the primary and recommended environment for any partner building a commercial AppExchange application. It is specifically designed for ISV (Independent Software Vendor) development and includes:
→ The ability to register a unique namespace for your managed package.
→ Packaging and distribution features to create and upload managed packages.
→ Licenses intended for development and testing of the package.
→ Access to the Partner Business Org for listing and managing the application on AppExchange.

B. Developer Edition ✅
A standard Developer Edition org can also be used for building a managed package. It allows you to:
→ Register a namespace (though it is primarily intended for learning and experimentation).
→ Develop and package components into a managed package.
However, for serious commercial development, a Partner Developer Edition is strongly preferred as it is part of the official ISV Partner Program and provides additional benefits and resources.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect ❌

C. Developer Sandbox and D. Developer Pro Sandbox
Sandboxes are clones of a production org and are used for development and testing within an organization that already has a Salesforce production org. They are not designed for building net-new managed packages for the AppExchange because:
→ They cannot have a namespace registered directly in them. Namespaces are registered at the production level and are inherited by its sandboxes.
→ They are tied to an existing production org and are meant for customizing that org, not for building an independent, distributable product.
→ You cannot create a new managed package for commercial sale from a sandbox; you can only develop components that are part of an existing managed package from the parent production org.

References 📖
Salesforce Help: Get Started with Partner Development
Salesforce Help: Create a Developer Edition Org
Salesforce Help: Sandbox Types (See limitations on namespace registration)

Which two actions will contribute to an improvement of code security? Choose 2 answers


A. Hire a company specialized in secure code review the current code.


B. Implement a pull request and secure code review.


C. Integrate a static code security analysis tool in the CI/CD process.


D. Use two developers to review and fix current code vulnerabilities.





B.
  Implement a pull request and secure code review.

C.
  Integrate a static code security analysis tool in the CI/CD process.

Explanation:

Code security is an integral part of the development lifecycle and should be addressed proactively, not just reactively. The most effective strategies involve a combination of automated and manual checks to catch vulnerabilities early.

B. Implement a Pull Request and Secure Code Review ✅
A pull request (PR) is a standard process in modern development workflows that allows developers to propose changes to a codebase. By mandating a secure code review as part of the PR process, you ensure that another developer, or a security expert, scrutinizes the code before it is merged. This manual review is crucial for identifying:

→ Logical vulnerabilities: A tool might not catch a flaw where a developer unintentionally creates a bypass in the business logic.
→ Contextual issues: A human reviewer can understand the intended purpose of the code and spot deviations that could be exploited.
→ Design flaws: A reviewer can identify poor design patterns that create an insecure foundation for future development.

This practice fosters a culture of shared responsibility for code quality and security.

C. Integrate a Static Code Security Analysis Tool in the CI/CD Process ✅
A Static Code Security Analysis (SCA) tool, also known as a Static Application Security Testing (SAST) tool, scans source code without executing it. When integrated into a Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline, it automatically checks every new code commit for common security vulnerabilities.

This is a powerful "shift-left" security practice because it:
→ Identifies issues early: Vulnerabilities are found and flagged immediately, making them cheaper and easier to fix before they are deployed.
→ Enforces best practices: The tool can be configured with rules that enforce compliance with security standards like the OWASP Top 10.
→ Provides a safety net: It serves as a consistent, automated first line of defense, catching simple but critical errors that a human might miss.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect ❌

A. Hire a company specialized in secure code review the current code:
While this can be a valuable action, it's typically a one-time or periodic audit rather than a continuous process. A one-off review doesn't prevent new vulnerabilities from being introduced in subsequent development cycles. The best approach is to embed security practices into the daily workflow.

D. Use two developers to review and fix current code vulnerabilities:
This is a good starting point for a manual review, but it's not a comprehensive, ongoing solution. It only addresses "current" vulnerabilities and doesn't establish a process for future development. A dedicated pull request and review process (Option B) is a formal, repeatable way to manage this. Relying solely on manual review can also be inefficient and prone to human error, which is why combining it with an automated tool (Option C) is a superior strategy.

Which two groups are responsible for the creation and execution of Release Management processes? Choose 2 answers


A. Steering Committee


B. End Users


C. Dev/Build Team


D. Center of Excellence





C.
  Dev/Build Team

D.
  Center of Excellence

Explanation:

Release Management is about planning, building, testing, and deploying new features into Salesforce environments in a controlled, repeatable way. The responsibility falls mainly on two groups.

Dev/Build Team ✅
The Dev/Build Team is directly responsible for creating and executing the technical side of release management. They build packages, validate deployments, run automated tests, and ensure changes are ready for release. Without them, no release process can be executed.

Center of Excellence (CoE) ✅
The CoE sets the standards, governance, and best practices for release management. They define how changes move from development through testing to production, ensure alignment with business priorities, and enforce compliance. The CoE also coordinates across multiple teams to make sure releases are consistent and safe.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect ❌

Steering Committee 🚫
This group provides strategic direction and business prioritization, but they do not create or execute release processes. They guide what gets delivered, not how it is released.

End Users 🚫
End users are consumers of the release and provide feedback during UAT, but they are not responsible for defining or executing release management processes.

References 📖
Salesforce Architect Guide: Release Management Best Practices
Salesforce Center of Excellence Framework

✨ Exam Tip: Think execution. Release processes are created by CoE and executed by the Dev/Build team. Steering Committee and End Users play supporting roles but aren’t directly responsible.

Universal Containers (UC) is implementing Service Cloud UC's contact center receives 100 phone calls per hour and operates across North America, Europe and APAC regions. UC wants the application to be responsive and scalable to support 150 calls considering future growth. what should be recommended test load consideration


A. Testing load considering 50% more call volume.


B. Testing load considering half the call volume.


C. Testing load considering 10xthe current call volume.


D. Testing load considering current call volume.





A.
  Testing load considering 50% more call volume.

Explanation:

Universal Containers (UC) wants their Service Cloud application to handle 100 phone calls per hour now and scale to 150 calls per hour in the future, across multiple regions. To make sure the application is responsive and scalable, testing should simulate the expected future load. Let’s see why testing 50% more call volume is the best choice:

A. Testing load considering 50% more call volume ✅
UC expects to handle 150 calls per hour in the future, which is 50% more than the current 100 calls per hour. Testing at this level (150 calls per hour) ensures the application can manage the anticipated growth without performance issues. It checks if the system stays responsive and scalable under the expected load, which is critical for planning ahead. For example, this test would show if the system can handle the increased call volume across North America, Europe, and APAC without slowing down.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect ❌

B. Testing load considering half the call volume:
Testing at 50 calls per hour (half of the current 100 calls) doesn’t prepare the system for growth. It only checks performance below the current load, which won’t help UC ensure the application can handle 150 calls in the future.

C. Testing load considering 10x the current call volume:
Testing at 1,000 calls per hour (10 times the current load) is excessive. While stress testing is useful, this goes far beyond UC’s goal of 150 calls. It could waste time and resources on unrealistic scenarios.

D. Testing load considering current call volume:
Testing only at 100 calls per hour checks the system’s current performance but doesn’t account for the future growth to 150 calls. This could miss potential issues when the call volume increases.

References 📖
Salesforce Help: Performance Testing for Service Cloud
Trailhead: Plan for Scalability in Salesforce

Universal Containers (UC) is midway through a large enterprise project. UC is working in an agile model, and currently has four-week iterations, with a branching strategy supporting this approach. UC operates in a strict regulatory environment, and has dedicated teams for security, QA, and release management. The system is live with users, and a serious production issue is identified at the start of a sprint, which is narrowed down to a bug in some Apex code. Which three approaches should an architect recommend to address this bug? Choose 3 answers


A. Investigate potential data impacts.


B. Fix the bug in a hotfix branch.


C. Wait until the next release to deploy the fix.


D. Attempt to fix the bug directly in production.


E. Seek stakeholder approval for the hotfix.





A.
  Investigate potential data impacts.

B.
  Fix the bug in a hotfix branch.

E.
  Seek stakeholder approval for the hotfix.

Explanation:

A serious production bug in a live, regulated environment requires a careful balance between speed and process. The response must be swift to minimize business impact but also controlled and compliant with strict governance procedures. A formal "hotfix" process is the standard approach.

A. Investigate potential data impacts. ✅
Before any fix is deployed, it is critical to understand the full scope of the problem. This involves:
→ Root Cause Analysis: Determining the exact flaw in the Apex code.
→ Data Assessment: Identifying which records and business processes have been affected by the bug. This is crucial in a regulated environment for compliance reporting and potential data remediation.
→ Impact Analysis: Understanding how the fix might affect other parts of the system to avoid introducing new issues.

B. Fix the bug in a hotfix branch. ✅
A hotfix branch is a standard Git strategy for handling urgent production fixes outside of the normal development cycle.
→ It is created from the production codebase (or the release tag that is in production).
→ The fix is developed and tested in isolation from the current sprint's work happening in the main development branches.
→ This allows the team to patch production quickly without disrupting the ongoing four-week iteration schedule or introducing half-developed features.

E. Seek stakeholder approval for the hotfix. ✅
In a strict regulatory environment with dedicated security and release management teams, formal approval is non-negotiable.
→ Stakeholders from release management, security, QA, and business leadership must review and approve the hotfix.
→ This ensures the change complies with all internal controls, security policies, and regulatory requirements before it is deployed to the production environment.
→ Approval creates the necessary audit trail for compliance.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect ❌

C. Wait until the next release to deploy the fix.
This is unacceptable for a serious production issue. A four-week wait could lead to significant business disruption, compliance violations, security risks, or financial loss. The agile process must be flexible enough to accommodate critical fixes.

D. Attempt to fix the bug directly in production.
This is a severe anti-pattern and violates all principles of sound release management.
→ It bypasses all testing, code review, and approval processes.
→ It is extremely risky and likely to cause more problems.
→ It provides no audit trail, which is crucial in a regulated environment.
→ It would be impossible to properly version control and integrate the change back into the main codebase.

Reference 📖
Salesforce Help: Development Models (Discusses branching strategies and release management)
Git Documentation: Git Branching - Branching Workflows (Describes the concept of a hotfix branch)

Universal Containers (UC) development team is developing a managed package for AppExchange. The product team has finished developing and testing, and wants to submit a Security Review. However, the product manager has concerns on the few errors from the Checkmarx code scanner. How should the product team proceed?


A. Review the Checkmarx errors. If there is no need to fix, mark them as false positive and attach explanation, then submit.


B. Leave them to the Salesforce security review team, they would catch it if those are true problems.


C. Leave a partner support case, the partner manager will engage Salesforce support resources to help.


D. Review the Checkmarx errors and fix all of them before submitting security review. Salesforce security review team will reject the request if any error remains.





A.
  Review the Checkmarx errors. If there is no need to fix, mark them as false positive and attach explanation, then submit.

Explanation:

The Salesforce Security Review is a mandatory process for all AppExchange managed packages. It is designed to ensure that the applications are secure and reliable for customers. Checkmarx is a key component of this review, serving as an automated security scanner that identifies potential vulnerabilities in the code.

Why Reviewing and Justifying Errors is the Correct Approach ✅
The Salesforce security review process is a collaborative one. It's not a simple pass/fail test. The product team's responsibility is to understand the findings from the security scanner and either remediate them or provide a clear, technical justification for why they are not a real security risk.

False Positives: Automated scanners like Checkmarx can sometimes flag code that, in the specific context of the application, is not a security vulnerability. This is known as a false positive. For example, a scanner might flag an Apex class that retrieves records without a WITH SECURITY_ENFORCED clause, but the context of the code may be a system-level process where access control is already handled. In such cases, the team should mark the finding as a false positive and provide a detailed explanation. This demonstrates due diligence and technical understanding.

True Positives: If the scanner identifies a genuine vulnerability, the team is responsible for fixing the error. The goal is to submit a package that is as secure as possible.
Simply fixing all errors without understanding them or leaving them for the Salesforce team to handle is an inefficient and incorrect approach. A solid justification for a false positive shows that the development team has a deep understanding of security and their application's architecture.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect ❌

B. Leave them to the Salesforce security review team, they would catch it if those are true problems:
This is incorrect. The Salesforce Security Review team expects the development team to have done their due diligence. Submitting a package with known errors and no explanations will likely result in a failed review, requiring the team to go back and address the issues anyway. It wastes both the developer's and the review team's time.

C. Leave a partner support case, the partner manager will engage Salesforce support resources to help:
While a partner manager is a resource for AppExchange partners, they are not responsible for fixing a partner's code vulnerabilities. The onus is on the development team to own and resolve the security issues in their application.

D. Review the Checkmarx errors and fix all of them before submitting security review. Salesforce security review team will reject the request if any error remains:
This is partially correct but too absolute. While fixing true vulnerabilities is crucial, the idea that every single error must be fixed is not accurate. Some findings are, by nature, false positives. The correct action is to provide a justification for those that are not genuine vulnerabilities, as per option A. A submission with well-documented false positives and fixes for true positives is a valid and expected practice.

Universal Containers is about to begin the release of a major project. To facilitate this, they have several sandboxes to make their deployment train. These sandboxes are a mix of preview and non-preview instances. What should the architect recommend?


A. Refresh all non-preview sandboxes during the release preview window.


B. Refresh all non-preview sandboxes when the release management team has time.


C. No advice needed, mixing instance types is important for regression testing.


D. Contact support to roll back the release when Salesforce upgrades the sandboxes,





A.
  Refresh all non-preview sandboxes during the release preview window.

Explanation:

When Salesforce prepares to roll out a new seasonal release, some sandboxes are upgraded to the preview version while others stay on the non-preview version. For a large release project, consistency across the deployment train (Dev → QA → UAT → Stage) is critical to avoid unexpected behavior caused by version mismatches.

A. Refresh all non-preview sandboxes during the release preview window ✅
By refreshing the non-preview sandboxes during the preview window, the entire deployment train is aligned on the same release version. This ensures that testing and validation happen in a consistent environment, reducing the risk of defects appearing only because of version differences.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect ❌

B. Refresh all non-preview sandboxes when the release management team has time 🚫 Timing is critical. If the refresh happens outside of the release preview window, those sandboxes may remain on different versions, causing inconsistencies.

C. No advice needed, mixing instance types is important for regression testing 🚫 This is misleading. Regression testing should be intentional, not caused by unmanaged mismatches between preview and non-preview sandboxes. A deployment train requires consistency.

D. Contact support to roll back the release when Salesforce upgrades the sandboxes 🚫 Salesforce does not roll back seasonal releases. Once an instance is upgraded, there is no option to revert.

References 📖
Salesforce Sandbox Preview Guide
Salesforce Release Management Best Practices

✨ Exam Tip: During seasonal releases, always refresh non-preview sandboxes in the preview window so your entire deployment train is on the same version.

Universal Containers is in the process of testing their integration between salesforce and their on-premise ERP systems. The testing team has requested a sandbox with up to 10,000 records in each object to benchmark the integration performance. What is the fastest approach anArchitect should recommend?


A. Spin off a partial copy sandbox using a sandbox template with all the objects required for testing the integration.


B. Spin off a Developer pro sandbox, migrate the metadata and load the data using data loader.


C. Spin off a full copy sandbox with all the objects that are required for testing the integration.


D. Spin off a Development sandbox, migrate the metadata and load the data using data loader.





A.
  Spin off a partial copy sandbox using a sandbox template with all the objects required for testing the integration.

Explanation:

Universal Containers needs a sandbox with up to 10,000 records per object to test their Salesforce-to-ERP integration quickly. The goal is to set up a testing environment with the right data and metadata as fast as possible. Let’s explore why a partial copy sandbox is the best choice:

A. Spin off a partial copy sandbox using a sandbox template with all the objects required for testing the integration ✅
A partial copy sandbox can hold up to 10,000 records per object, which matches UC’s requirement exactly. Using a sandbox template, the architect can select only the objects and data needed for the integration test, ensuring the environment is tailored and efficient. Partial copy sandboxes copy both metadata (like fields and workflows) and a subset of production data, making setup faster than manually loading data. This approach is quick because it uses Salesforce’s built-in data copy feature, avoiding the need for external tools like Data Loader.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect ❌

B. Spin off a Developer Pro sandbox, migrate the metadata and load the data using Data Loader:
A Developer Pro sandbox supports up to 1GB of data, which could handle 10,000 records per object, but it doesn’t include production data by default. The team would need to manually migrate metadata and load data using Data Loader, which is slower and more error-prone than using a partial copy sandbox with a template.

C. Spin off a full copy sandbox with all the objects that are required for testing the integration:
A full copy sandbox includes all production data and metadata, which is more than UC needs (only 10,000 records per object). Full copy sandboxes take longer to create and refresh because they copy everything, making this option slower than a partial copy sandbox.

D. Spin off a Development sandbox, migrate the metadata and load the data using Data Loader:
A Development sandbox (likely meant as a Developer sandbox) only supports 200MB of data, which may not be enough for 10,000 records across multiple objects. Like option B, it requires manual metadata migration and data loading, which is time-consuming and less efficient.

References 📖
Salesforce Help: Sandbox Types and Templates
Trailhead: Choose the Right Sandbox for Your Needs

Universal Containers (UC) has a large user base (>300 users) and was originally implemented eight years ago by a Salesforce Systems Integration Partner. Since then, UC has made a number of changes to its Visual force pages and Apex classes in response to customer requirements, made by a variety of Vendors and internal teams. Which three issues would a new Technical Architect expect to see when evaluating the code in the Salesforce org? Choose 3 answers


A. Multiple triggers on the same object, making it hard to understand the order of operations.


B. Multiple unit test failures would be encountered.


C. Broken functionality due to Salesforce upgrades.


D. Duplicated logic across Visual force pages and Apex classes performing similar tasks.


E. Custom-built JSON and String manipulation Classes that are no longer required.





A.
  Multiple triggers on the same object, making it hard to understand the order of operations.

D.
  Duplicated logic across Visual force pages and Apex classes performing similar tasks.

E.
  Custom-built JSON and String manipulation Classes that are no longer required.

Explanation:

A. Multiple triggers on the same object
Very likely.
In older orgs built by different vendors over many years, it’s common to find more than one trigger per object, each handling a different “piece” of logic. This is considered an anti-pattern because:

It’s hard to predict order of execution.
Logic becomes scattered and difficult to debug.
It violates the common best practice of one trigger per object that delegates to handler classes.

Salesforce reference: Apex Trigger Framework / Best Practice – “One trigger per object, logic in handler classes.”

D. Duplicated logic across Visualforce pages and Apex classes
Also very likely.

With many teams contributing over 8+ years, you often see:

Copy-paste Apex and controller logic across multiple Visualforce controllers.
Similar validation, querying, or transformation logic repeated across classes.
No central service layer or common utility classes.

This leads to maintenance pain and inconsistent behavior when only some copies get updated.

E. Custom-built JSON and String manipulation classes that are no longer required
Very plausible in an 8-year-old org.

Earlier in Salesforce history, teams often wrote:

Custom JSON serializers/deserializers.
Custom String utilities (trimming, padding, searching, etc.).

Over time, Salesforce added rich built-in JSON (e.g., JSON.serialize, JSON.deserialize) and String methods, plus features like JSON.deserializeUntyped, JSONGenerator, etc. Those older custom utilities may:

Be obsolete, but still clutter the codebase.
Increase confusion about which utilities to use.

Why not the others?

B. Multiple unit test failures would be encountered.
Not necessarily. To deploy changes, Salesforce requires tests to pass (and 75% org-wide coverage). Even if the code is ugly, as long as deployments have been happening, key tests probably pass. Failing tests can exist, but it’s not something you would expect by default just because the org is old.

C. Broken functionality due to Salesforce upgrades.
Salesforce is strongly backward compatible. While behavior changes can sometimes surface edge issues, it is not common for standard upgrades to directly break existing, supported patterns of custom code. So this is less likely than architectural/code-smell issues like A, D, and E.

By to What three tools should an architect recommend to support application lifecycle methodology Choose 3 answers


A. Database management systems


B. Version control repository


C. Middleware


D. Continuous integration tool


E. Issue tracking Tool





B.
  Version control repository

D.
  Continuous integration tool

E.
  Issue tracking Tool

Explanation:

This question tests the fundamental knowledge of the core components of a modern Application Lifecycle Management (ALM) toolchain. A robust ALM methodology requires tools for tracking work, managing code changes, and automating the build and deployment processes.

Why B is Correct (Version Control Repository):
This is the non-negotiable foundation of any professional software development lifecycle. A version control system (like Git) is used to:

Track all changes to code and metadata.
Maintain a complete history of who changed what and why.
Enable branching and merging strategies, allowing for parallel development (e.g., feature branches, release branches).
Act as the single source of truth for all project artifacts. Without version control, collaboration, rollback, and auditability are nearly impossible.

Why D is Correct (Continuous Integration Tool):
Continuous Integration (CI) is a practice and a tool that automates the process of building and testing code every time a developer commits a change to the version control repository. A CI tool (like Jenkins, Copado, Azure DevOps, Salesforce CLI) is critical for:

Running automated tests to immediately catch regressions.
Validating that code from different developers integrates correctly.
Packaging code for deployment. This automation enforces quality gates and is essential for a repeatable and reliable deployment process.

Why E is Correct (Issue Tracking Tool):
An issue or work item tracking tool (like Jira, Azure Boards, or Salesforce Agile Accelerator) is essential for managing the application lifecycle from a business and project management perspective. It is used to:

Capture requirements (e.g., user stories).
Track bugs and defects.
Manage the development workflow (e.g., To Do, In Progress, Done).
Provide traceability between a business requirement and the code that implements it. This tool is the central hub for planning and communication.

Why A is Incorrect (Database Management Systems):
While a DBMS is critical for the application itself, it is not a tool for managing the lifecycle. The lifecycle tools interact with the Salesforce platform (the "database" in a broader sense) via APIs, but recommending a specific DBMS is not part of defining an ALM methodology for Salesforce.

Why C is Incorrect (Middleware):
Middleware is used for application integration, such as connecting Salesforce to other external systems (e.g., using MuleSoft). It is a tool for the solution architecture, not for managing the development, testing, and deployment lifecycle of the Salesforce application itself.

Key Takeaway:
The core ALM toolchain for a disciplined development process consists of:

Version Control for source code management.
CI Tool for build and test automation.
Issue Tracker for work management and traceability.

These three tools work together to provide governance, automation, and visibility throughout the application lifecycle.

What would a technical architect recommend to avoid possible delays while deploying a change set?


A. Change set performance is independent of included components.


B. Manually create new custom objects and new custom fields.


C. Manually apply the field type changes.


D. Manually validate change sets before deployment.





D.
  Manually validate change sets before deployment.

Explanation:

Change sets are notorious for failing during deployment even after they have been successfully uploaded, especially in large or complex orgs. The most common causes of delays are missing dependencies that were not automatically detected and included in the change set (e.g., profiles, permission sets, list views, custom labels, remote site settings, etc.).
Running Validate (not just Upload) before the actual deployment does the following:

Executes all Apex tests in the target org.
Performs a full dry-run of the deployment.
Surfaces all missing dependencies and errors ahead of time.
Allows the team to add the missing components or fix issues while the change set is still in the sandbox, preventing last-minute surprises and deployment-queue delays in production.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

A. Change set performance is independent of included components
This statement is completely false and contradicts well-documented Salesforce behavior. Deployment time and success rate are heavily influenced by the number, size, and type of components in a change set. For example, including full Profile or Permission Set deployments (especially in orgs with hundreds of users and objects) can take hours and frequently fails due to hidden dependencies or size limits. Large numbers of custom fields, sharing rules, Apex classes, or reports can also dramatically slow down or break the deployment. Salesforce itself warns that change sets with too many components or certain component types (e.g., profiles) are prone to timeouts and errors. Claiming performance is “independent” of what’s included is the opposite of reality.

B. Manually create new custom objects and new custom fields
A Technical Architect would never recommend manually recreating metadata directly in production as a way to speed up deployments. Doing so completely bypasses version control, automated testing, code review, governance, and audit trails — all of which are mandatory for any enterprise org. It also creates discrepancies between environments, making future deployments even harder (you now have metadata in production that doesn’t exist in sandboxes or source control). This is considered one of the worst anti-patterns in Salesforce development and is explicitly called out in the Application Lifecycle and Development Models Trailhead modules as something to avoid at all costs.

C. Manually apply the field type changes
Manually changing field types (e.g., Text → Picklist, Number → Text (Length), or anything that involves data transformation) directly in production is extremely high-risk and often irreversible. Many field-type changes cause data truncation or loss, break existing integrations, reports, formulas, and Apex code, and can even lock records. Salesforce restricts many field-type changes in production precisely because they are dangerous. The correct process is to make the change in a sandbox, test thoroughly (including data migration if needed), and deploy via a proper ALM process — never to do it by hand in production as a “workaround” for change set issues.

Reference:
Trailhead and Salesforce Help both explicitly recommend validating change sets before deploying to production to “avoid surprises and reduce deployment time.”
Salesforce DevOps documentation now discourages heavy reliance on change sets in favor of unlocked packages or Metadata API, but when change sets must be used, validation is the key mitigation step.

There has been an increase in the number of defects. Universal Containers (UC) found the root cause to be decreased in quality of code. Which two options can enforce code quality in UC's continuous integration process? Choose 2 answers


A. Introduce manual code review before deployment to the testing sandbox.


B. Introduce manual code review before deployment to the production org.


C. Increase the size of the testing team assigned to the project.


D. Introduce static code analysis before deployment to the testing sandbox.





A.
  Introduce manual code review before deployment to the testing sandbox.

D.
  Introduce static code analysis before deployment to the testing sandbox.

Explanation:

A. Introduce manual code review before deployment to the testing sandbox.
Explanation: A manual code review (often performed via a Pull Request/Merge Request approval process) is a quality gate enforced by developers and architects. By requiring a review before merging code into the main branch and deploying it to a shared testing sandbox, you ensure that another pair of eyes checks for:
Logic Errors: Issues that static analysis might miss.
Adherence to Best Practices: Trigger framework usage, proper bulkification, and readable code structure.
Architectural Alignment: Compliance with the overall design.
Why before the testing sandbox? This is the crucial point. In CI, quality checks should happen as early as possible ("Shift Left"). Checking the code before it is integrated into the shared sandbox prevents bad code from ever contaminating the test environment and ensures the code being tested is of high quality.

D. Introduce static code analysis before deployment to the testing sandbox.
Explanation: Static Code Analysis (SCA) is a crucial, automated quality gate in any CI pipeline. Tools like Salesforce Code Analyzer, PMD, or SonarQube scan the code (Apex, Visualforce, LWC, etc.) without executing it to check for:
Security Vulnerabilities (e.g., SOQL injection).
Code Smells (e.g., excessive complexity, duplicated logic).
Anti-Patterns (e.g., hardcoding IDs).
Enforcement: The CI tool can be configured to fail the build if the SCA result exceeds a defined severity threshold. This enforces the quality policy, preventing low-quality code from being deployed to any environment. Introducing this before deployment to the testing sandbox is the earliest and most effective place to catch these technical flaws.

❌ Incorrect Answers and Explanations
B. Introduce manual code review before deployment to the production org.
Explanation: While a final review before Production is good practice, it is too late for an enforcement step aimed at improving CI quality. The goal of Continuous Integration is to validate code quality early and frequently. If poor-quality code has already been deployed to and tested in multiple sandboxes, identifying a quality issue at the Production stage creates maximum friction and deployment delays. The review should be done at the start of the pipeline (A).

C. Increase the size of the testing team assigned to the project.
Explanation: Increasing the size of the testing team focuses on improving the quality of functional testing (finding defects in how the application works), not the quality of the underlying code itself (fixing the root cause: decreased code quality). Defects caused by poor code (e.g., non-bulkified Apex, security flaws) are best addressed by developers using automated tools (D) and peer review (A) in the CI phase, not by adding more manual testers.

📚 References
The Salesforce Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect exam strongly aligns with DevOps best practices, which emphasize "Shift Left" quality gates.

Static Code Analysis (D) as a CI Quality Gate:
Salesforce Developers, Salesforce Code Analyzer
Relevant Concept: SCA tools are designed to be integrated into the CI/CD pipeline and execute automatically to identify code quality issues and security vulnerabilities, ensuring the code base adheres to standards before promotion.

Code Reviews (A) as an Early Quality Gate:
Salesforce Developers, Streamlining Development: Best Practices for Salesforce DevOps and Continuous Integration (Focus on Pull Request/Merge Request practices)
Relevant Concept: Code reviews serve as a manual enforcement of best practices and logic integrity, and by integrating this review with the merge to the main branch (which triggers the CI deployment to the testing sandbox), it becomes an essential early quality gate.


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