SY0-701 Practice Test Questions

389 Questions


Which of the following teams combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization's critical systems?


A. Red


B. Blue


C. Purple


D. Yellow





C.
  Purple

Explanation: Purple is the team that combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization’s critical systems. Purple is not a separate team, but rather a collaboration between the red team and the blue team. The red team is the offensive team that simulates attacks and exploits vulnerabilities in the organization’s systems. The blue team is the defensive team that monitors and protects the organization’s systems from real and simulated threats. The purple team exists to ensure and maximize the effectiveness of the red and blue teams by integrating the defensive tactics and controls from the blue team with the threats and vulnerabilities found by the red team into a single narrative that improves the overall security posture of the organization. Red, blue, and yellow are other types of teams involved in security testing, but they do not combine both offensive and defensive techniques. The yellow team is the team that builds software solutions, scripts, and other programs that the blue team uses in the security testing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1331; Penetration Testing: Understanding Red, Blue, & Purple Teams3

Which of the following is most likely to be deployed to obtain and analyze attacker activity and techniques?


A. Firewall


B. IDS


C. Honeypot


D. Layer 3 switch





C.
  Honeypot

Explanation: A honeypot is most likely to be deployed to obtain and analyze attacker activity and techniques. A honeypot is a decoy system set up to attract attackers, providing an opportunity to study their methods and behaviors in a controlled environment without risking actual systems. Honeypot: A decoy system designed to lure attackers, allowing administrators to observe and analyze attack patterns and techniques. Firewall: Primarily used to block unauthorized access to networks, not for observing attacker behavior. IDS (Intrusion Detection System): Detects and alerts on malicious activity but does not specifically engage attackers to observe their behavior. Layer 3 switch: Used for routing traffic within networks, not for analyzing attacker techniques. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.4 - Indicators of malicious activity (Honeypots).

Which of the following security concepts is the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege?


A. Integrity


B. Availability


C. Confidentiality


D. Non-repudiation





C.
  Confidentiality

Explanation: Confidentiality is the security concept that ensures data is protected from unauthorized access or disclosure. The principle of least privilege is a technique that grants users or systems the minimum level of access or permissions that they need to perform their tasks, and nothing more. By applying the principle of least privilege to a human resources fileshare, the permissions can be restricted to only those who have a legitimate need to access the sensitive data, such as HR staff, managers, or auditors. This can prevent unauthorized users, such as hackers, employees, or contractors, from accessing, copying, modifying, or deleting the data. Therefore, the principle of least privilege can enhance the confidentiality of the data on the fileshare. Integrity, availability, and non- repudiation are other security concepts, but they are not the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege. Integrity is the security concept that ensures data is accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption. Availability is the security concept that ensures data is accessible and usable by authorized users or systems when needed. Non-repudiation is the security concept that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data and actions, and prevents the denial of involvement or responsibility. While these concepts are also important for data security, they are not directly related to the level of access or permissions granted to users or systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17, 372-373

Which of the following would most likely mitigate the impact of an extended power outage on a company's environment?


A. Hot site


B. UPS


C. Snapshots


D. SOAR





B.
  UPS

Explanation: A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) would most likely mitigate the impact of an extended power outage on a company's environment. A UPS provides backup power and ensures that systems continue to run during short-term power outages, giving enough time to perform an orderly shutdown or switch to a longer-term power solution like a generator. Hot site: A fully operational offsite data center that can be used if the primary site becomes unavailable. It’s more suitable for disaster recovery rather than mitigating short-term power outages. UPS: Provides immediate backup power, protecting against data loss and hardware damage during power interruptions. Snapshots: Used for data backup and recovery, not for power outage mitigation. SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response): A platform for automating security operations, not related to power outage mitigation. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 3.4 - Importance of resilience and recovery in security architecture (Power: Generators, UPS).

An organization wants a third-party vendor to do a penetration test that targets a specific device. The organization has provided basic information about the device. Which of the following best describes this kind of penetration test?


A. Partially known environment


B. Unknown environment


C. Integrated


D. Known environment





A.
  Partially known environment

Explanation: A partially known environment is a type of penetration test where the tester has some information about the target, such as the IP address, the operating system, or the device type. This can help the tester focus on specific vulnerabilities and reduce the scope of the test. A partially known environment is also called a gray box test1. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 10, page 543.

Which of the following should a security operations center use to improve its incident response procedure?


A. Playbooks


B. Frameworks


C. Baselines


D. Benchmarks





A.
  Playbooks

Explanation: A playbook is a documented set of procedures that outlines the step-by-step response to specific types of cybersecurity incidents. Security Operations Centers (SOCs) use playbooks to improve consistency, efficiency, and accuracy during incident response. Playbooks help ensure that the correct procedures are followed based on the type of incident, ensuring swift and effective remediation. Frameworks provide general guidelines for implementing security but are not specific enough for incident response procedures. Baselines represent normal system behavior and are used for anomaly detection, not incident response guidance. Benchmarks are performance standards and are not directly related to incident response.

An IT manager is putting together a documented plan describing how the organization will keep operating in the event of a global incident. Which of the following plans is the IT manager creating?


A. Business continuity


B. Physical security


C. Change management


D. Disaster recovery





A.
  Business continuity

Explanation: The IT manager is creating a Business Continuity Plan (BCP). A BCP describes how an organization will continue to operate during and after a disaster or global incident. It ensures that critical business functions remain operational despite adverse conditions, with a focus on minimizing downtime and maintaining essential services. Physical security relates to protecting physical assets. Change management ensures changes in IT systems are introduced smoothly, without disrupting operations. Disaster recovery is a subset of business continuity but focuses specifically on recovering from IT-related incidents.

A company decided to reduce the cost of its annual cyber insurance policy by removing the coverage for ransomware attacks. Which of the following analysis elements did the company most likely use in making this decision?


A. IMTTR


B. RTO


C. ARO


D. MTBF





C.
  ARO

Explanation: ARO (Annualized Rate of Occurrence) is an analysis element that measures the frequency or likelihood of an event happening in a given year. ARO is often used in risk assessment and management, as it helps to estimate the potential loss or impact of an event. A company can use ARO to calculate the annualized loss expectancy (ALE) of an event, which is the product of ARO and the single loss expectancy (SLE). ALE represents the expected cost of an event per year, and can be used to compare with the cost of implementing a security control or purchasing an insurance policy. The company most likely used ARO in making the decision to remove the coverage for ransomware attacks from its cyber insurance policy. The company may have estimated the ARO of ransomware attacks based on historical data, industry trends, or threat intelligence, and found that the ARO was low or negligible. The company may have also calculated the ALE of ransomware attacks, and found that the ALE was lower than the cost of the insurance policy. Therefore, the company decided to reduce the cost of its annual cyber insurance policy by removing the coverage for ransomware attacks, as it deemed the risk to be acceptable or manageable. IMTTR (Incident Management Team Training and Readiness), RTO (Recovery Time Objective), and MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) are not analysis elements that the company most likely used in making the decision to remove the coverage for ransomware attacks from its cyber insurance policy. IMTTR is a process of preparing and training the incident management team to respond effectively to security incidents. IMTTR does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the capability and readiness of the team. RTO is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption. RTO does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the availability and continuity of the system or service. MTBF is a metric that measures the average time between failures of a system or component. MTBF does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the reliability and performance of the system or component.

An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane. Which of the following would be most relevant for the analyst to evaluate?


A. Secured zones


B. Subject role


C. Adaptive identity


D. Threat scope reduction





D.
  Threat scope reduction

Explanation: The data plane, also known as the forwarding plane, is the part of the network that carries user traffic and data. It is responsible for moving packets from one device to another based on the routing and switching decisions made by the control plane. The data plane is a critical component of the Zero Trust architecture, as it is where most of the attacks and breaches occur. Therefore, implementing Zero Trust principles within the data plane can help to improve the security and resilience of the network. One of the key principles of Zero Trust is to assume breach and minimize the blast radius and segment access. This means that the network should be divided into smaller and isolated segments or zones, each with its own security policies and controls. This way, if one segment is compromised, the attacker cannot easily move laterally to other segments and access more resources or data. This principle is also known as threat scope reduction, as it reduces the scope and impact of a potential threat. The other options are not as relevant for the data plane as threat scope reduction. Secured zones are a concept related to the control plane, which is the part of the network that makes routing and switching decisions. Subject role is a concept related to the identity plane, which is the part of the network that authenticates and authorizes users and devices. Adaptive identity is a concept related to the policy plane, which is the part of the network that defines and enforces the security policies and rules.

A healthcare organization wants to provide a web application that allows individuals to digitally report health emergencies. Which of the following is the most important consideration during development?


A. Scalability


B. Availability


C. Cost


D. Ease of deployment





B.
  Availability

Explanation: Availability is the ability of a system or service to be accessible and usable when needed. For a web application that allows individuals to digitally report health emergencies, availability is the most important consideration during development, because any downtime or delay could have serious consequences for the health and safety of the users. The web application should be designed to handle high traffic, prevent denial-of- service attacks, and have backup and recovery plans in case of failures2.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 41.

The security operations center is researching an event concerning a suspicious IP address A security analyst looks at the following event logs and discovers that a significant portion of the user accounts have experienced faded log-In attempts when authenticating from the same IP address:



Which of the following most likely describes attack that took place?


A. Spraying


B. Brute-force


C. Dictionary


D. Rainbow table





A.
  Spraying

Explanation: Password spraying is a type of attack where an attacker tries a small number of commonly used passwords across a large number of accounts. The event logs showing failed login attempts for many user accounts from the same IP address are indicative of a password spraying attack, where the attacker is attempting to gain access by guessing common passwords.

A newly appointed board member with cybersecurity knowledge wants the board of directors to receive a quarterly report detailing the number of incidents that impacted the organization. The systems administrator is creating a way to present the data to the board of directors. Which of the following should the systems administrator use?


A. Packet captures


B. Vulnerability scans


C. Metadata


D. Dashboard





D.
  Dashboard

Explanation: A dashboard is a graphical user interface that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators, metrics, and trends related to security events and incidents. A dashboard can help the board of directors to understand the number and impact of incidents that affected the organization in a given period, as well as the status and effectiveness of the security controls and processes. A dashboard can also allow the board of directors to drill down into specific details or filter the data by various criteria12.
A packet capture is a method of capturing and analyzing the network traffic that passes through a device or a network segment. A packet capture can provide detailed information about the source, destination, protocol, and content of each packet, but it is not a suitable way to present a summary of incidents to the board of directors13.
A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the weaknesses and exposures in a system or a network that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability scan can help the organization to prioritize and remediate the risks and improve the security posture, but it is not a relevant way to report the number of incidents that occurred in a quarter14.
Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its format, origin, structure, or context. Metadata can provide useful information about the characteristics and properties of data, but it is not a meaningful way to communicate the impact and frequency of incidents to the board of directors. References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3722: SIEM Dashboards – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 4.3, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3464: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 362. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 97.


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