Free IIA-CIA-Part3 Practice Test Questions 2026

687 Questions


Last Updated On : 28-Sep-2026


Which of the following practices circumvents administrative restrictions on smart devices, thereby increasing data security risks?


A. Rooting.


B. Eavesdropping.


C. Man in the middle.


D. Session hijacking.





A.
  Rooting.

Explanation

Rooting is the practice of bypassing the administrative restrictions and security controls placed on a smart device by its manufacturer or by organizational policy in order to gain privileged (root) access to the device's operating system. When a device is rooted, the user can install unauthorized applications, modify system settings, disable built-in security features, and access protected system files. This directly circumvents administrative restrictions on smart devices and significantly increases data security risks because organizational controls such as encryption enforcement, mobile device management (MDM) policies, application whitelisting, and remote wipe capabilities can be weakened or disabled. Rooting therefore creates a significant risk to organizational data stored on or accessed by the device.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Eavesdropping
– Eavesdropping is a passive attack in which an unauthorized party intercepts communications or monitors data transmissions. It is a security threat, but it does not circumvent administrative restrictions on smart devices; it exploits unsecured communications instead.

C. Man in the middle
– A man-in-the-middle attack occurs when an attacker secretly intercepts and possibly alters communications between two parties. It is a network-based attack that compromises confidentiality and integrity, but it does not involve bypassing the administrative restrictions placed on a smart device.

D. Session hijacking
– Session hijacking is an attack in which an attacker takes over a valid user session, often by stealing session tokens or cookies, to gain unauthorized access to a system or application. It exploits session management weaknesses, not administrative restrictions on smart devices.

Reference:

IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Information Technology — Specifically mobile device security, smart device risks, and controls over personally owned and organizational devices.

Which of the following Issues would be a major concern for internal auditors when using a free software to analyze a third-party vendor's big data?


A. The ability to use the software with ease to perform the data analysis to meet the engagement objectives.


B. The ability to purchase upgraded features of the software that allow for more In-depth analysis of the big data.


C. The ability to ensure that big data entered into the software is secure from potential compromises or loss.


D. The ability to download the software onto the appropriate computers for use in analyzing the big data.





C.
  The ability to ensure that big data entered into the software is secure from potential compromises or loss.

Explanation

When internal auditors use free software to analyze a third-party vendor's big data, the most significant concern is the security and confidentiality of the data being processed. Third-party vendor data is often sensitive, proprietary, or subject to contractual and regulatory requirements regarding confidentiality, privacy, and data protection. Free software may lack robust security features, may store or transmit data to external servers, may include undisclosed telemetry or data collection, and may not provide adequate controls to prevent unauthorized access, leakage, or loss of data. For internal auditors, ensuring that the big data entered into the software is protected from compromise or loss is a major concern because a data breach or loss could violate confidentiality obligations, damage the organization's relationship with the vendor, and create legal and regulatory exposure.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. The ability to use the software with ease to perform the data analysis to meet the engagement objectives
– Ease of use is a practical consideration that affects efficiency and effectiveness, but it is not the major concern when dealing with sensitive third-party big data. Usability issues can be worked around; data security and confidentiality breaches cannot.

B. The ability to purchase upgraded features of the software that allow for more in-depth analysis of the big data
– The availability of upgraded features is a functionality and cost consideration, not a primary risk concern. While more advanced features may improve analysis, the overriding concern when handling third-party data is protecting it from compromise or loss.

D. The ability to download the software onto the appropriate computers for use in analyzing the big data
– The ability to download and install the software is a logistical and technical consideration. It is not the major concern relative to the security and confidentiality of the sensitive data being processed, which is the primary risk internal auditors must consider.

Reference:

IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Information Technology — Specifically data security, confidentiality, third-party data handling, and the use of software tools in audit engagements.

An attacker, posing as a bank representative, convinced an employee to release certain, financial information that ultimately resulted in fraud. Which of the following best describes this cybersecurity risk?


A. Shoulder suiting


B. Pharming,


C. Phishing.


D. Social engineering





D.
  Social engineering

Explanation

Social engineering is a cybersecurity risk in which an attacker manipulates people into divulging confidential information, granting access, or performing actions that compromise security, often by impersonating a trusted individual or authority figure. In this scenario, the attacker posed as a bank representative and convinced an employee to release financial information, which ultimately resulted in fraud. This is a classic example of social engineering because the attack exploited human trust rather than a technical vulnerability. The attacker used deception, impersonation, and psychological manipulation to obtain sensitive information from the employee.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Shoulder surfing
– Shoulder surfing is a form of visual eavesdropping in which an attacker observes a user's screen, keyboard, or documents to obtain sensitive information such as passwords or PINs. In this scenario, no direct observation occurred; the attacker used deception and impersonation over communication, which is characteristic of social engineering, not shoulder surfing.

B. Pharming
– Pharming is a cyberattack that redirects users to fraudulent websites without their knowledge, typically by manipulating DNS settings or exploiting browser vulnerabilities. In this scenario, there is no indication that the employee was redirected to a fake website; the attacker directly contacted the employee and manipulated them into releasing information, which is social engineering.

C. Phishing
– Phishing is a specific type of social engineering in which an attacker sends fraudulent communications, usually email, that appear to come from a trustworthy source to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information or clicking malicious links. While phishing is a form of social engineering, the scenario describes direct interaction and manipulation by an attacker posing as a bank representative, which is broader than phishing. Social engineering is the most accurate and comprehensive description of the risk.

Reference:

IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Information Technology — Specifically cybersecurity risks, including social engineering, phishing, and impersonation tactics.

According to IIA guidance on IT, which of the following controls the routing of data packets to link computers?


A. Operating system


B. Control environment


C. Network.


D. Application program code





C.
  Network.

Explanation

According to IIA guidance on IT, a network is the component that controls the routing of data packets to link computers and enable them to communicate with each other. Networks use hardware and software components, such as routers, switches, and transmission protocols (e.g., TCP/IP), to direct data packets from a source computer to a destination computer across local or wide area connections. Routing is a core function of network infrastructure, ensuring that data reaches the correct destination. This makes networks the correct answer to the question of what controls the routing of data packets to link computers.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Operating system
– An operating system manages a computer's hardware and provides services for applications, and it includes networking capabilities. However, the operating system itself does not control the routing of data packets across a network; routing is performed by network devices and protocols, not by the operating system alone.

B. Control environment
– The control environment is a governance and internal control concept referring to the overall tone, culture, and structure that supports effective internal control (e.g., integrity, ethical values, management's philosophy). It is not an IT component and does not control the routing of data packets.

D. Application program code
– Application program code consists of the instructions and logic that make up software applications. While applications may use a network to communicate, application code does not control the routing of data packets; that is the function of the network infrastructure and its protocols.

Reference:

IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Information Technology — Specifically IT infrastructure components, including networks, hardware, software, and databases.

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a hierarchical control structure?


A. Less use of policies and procedures.


B. Less organizational commitment by employees.


C. Less emphasis on extrinsic rewards.


D. Less employee’s turnover.





B.
  Less organizational commitment by employees.

Explanation

A hierarchical control structure is characterized by centralized authority, formal rules and procedures, close supervision, and decision-making concentrated at higher levels of management. In such structures, employees typically have less autonomy, limited participation in decision-making, and fewer opportunities to influence their work. This tends to reduce employees' sense of ownership, engagement, and identification with the organization, resulting in lower organizational commitment. Research in organizational behavior consistently shows that rigid, hierarchical control structures are associated with lower employee commitment and satisfaction compared to more flexible, participative structures.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Less use of policies and procedures
– A hierarchical control structure relies heavily on formal policies, rules, and procedures to direct and control employee behavior. The emphasis on formalization is a defining characteristic of hierarchical structures, so "less use of policies and procedures" is the opposite of what is typical.

C. Less emphasis on extrinsic rewards
– Hierarchical structures typically emphasize extrinsic rewards such as pay, bonuses, promotions, and status as mechanisms for motivating and controlling employees. Extrinsic rewards are used heavily in bureaucratic, hierarchical settings, so less emphasis on extrinsic rewards is not a characteristic of this structure.

D. Less employee turnover
– Hierarchical control structures are generally associated with higher, not lower, employee turnover. Lower autonomy, reduced participation, and diminished commitment tend to increase turnover. Lower turnover is more characteristic of flatter, more participative organizational structures that foster engagement and commitment.

Reference:

IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Business Acumen / Organizational Behavior — Specifically organizational control structures, hierarchy, and employee motivation and commitment.

If an organization has a high amount of working capital compared to the industry average, which of the following is most likely true?


A. Settlement of short-term obligations may become difficult.


B. Cash may be bed up in items not generating financial value.


C. Collection policies of the organization are ineffective.


D. The organization is efficient in using assets to generate revenue.





B.
  Cash may be bed up in items not generating financial value.

Explanation

Working capital is calculated as current assets minus current liabilities, and it measures an organization's short-term liquidity and ability to meet its near-term obligations. When an organization has a high amount of working capital compared to the industry average, it suggests that the organization is holding excessive current assets, such as inventory, accounts receivable, or idle cash, relative to its current liabilities. While some working capital is necessary and healthy, an unusually high amount can indicate inefficiency: cash and other resources may be tied up in items that are not generating financial value for the organization, such as slow-moving inventory, excessive cash balances earning little return, or receivables that are not being collected promptly. This represents an opportunity cost and can signal poor working capital management.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Settlement of short-term obligations may become difficult
– This would be true if the organization had a low or negative amount of working capital, not a high amount. High working capital generally indicates a strong ability to settle short-term obligations, not difficulty in doing so.

C. Collection policies of the organization are ineffective
– While ineffective collection policies could contribute to high working capital by inflating accounts receivable, this is only one possible cause and not the most likely general conclusion. A high working capital position overall more broadly suggests resources tied up in non-productive assets rather than specifically pointing to ineffective collections. Option B is the broader and more accurate statement.

D. The organization is efficient in using assets to generate revenue
– High working capital compared to the industry average is generally associated with inefficiency, not efficiency, in asset utilization. Efficient organizations tend to minimize excess working capital and deploy resources productively. Excessive working capital suggests idle or underutilized resources, which is the opposite of efficiency.

Reference:

IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Financial Management — Specifically working capital management, liquidity analysis, and financial ratio analysis.

Which of the following performance measures disincentives engaging in earnings management?


A. Linking performance to profitability measures such as return on investment.


B. Linking performance to the stock price.


C. Linking performance to quotas such as units produced.


D. Linking performance to nonfinancial measures such as customer satisfaction and employees training





D.
  Linking performance to nonfinancial measures such as customer satisfaction and employees training

Explanation

Earnings management involves manipulating financial results through aggressive accounting choices, timing of revenues and expenses, or other means to achieve a desired earnings figure. When performance is linked to financial measures such as profitability, return on investment, stock price, or production quotas, managers have a strong incentive to manage earnings or manipulate operational metrics to hit targets because their compensation and evaluations depend on those numbers. In contrast, linking performance to nonfinancial measures such as customer satisfaction, employee training, quality, and operational efficiency reduces the incentive to engage in earnings management. These measures focus on long-term value creation and operational health rather than short-term financial outcomes, making it harder and less rewarding for managers to manipulate reported earnings to boost their performance evaluations. This makes nonfinancial performance measures an effective disincentive to earnings management.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Linking performance to profitability measures such as return on investment
– Tying performance to profitability measures directly incentivizes managers to manage earnings because their evaluations and rewards depend on reported financial results. If actual results fall short, managers may be motivated to manipulate earnings to meet targets. This encourages, rather than discourages, earnings management.

B. Linking performance to the stock price
– Tying performance to stock price creates strong pressure to meet or beat earnings expectations because stock prices react to reported earnings. This incentivizes managers to manage earnings to satisfy market expectations and support the stock price, so it does not disincentivize earnings management.

C. Linking performance to quotas such as units produced
– Tying performance to production quotas incentivizes managers to meet output targets, which can lead to manipulation of production metrics, inventory buildup, or other dysfunctional behaviors. It does not address earnings management and may even encourage manipulation of operational data, so it is not a disincentive.

Reference:

IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Business Acumen / Performance Measurement and Financial Management — Specifically performance measures, incentives, and earnings management.

Which of the following best describes a detective control designed to protect an organization from cyberthreats and attacks?


A. A list of trustworthy, good traffic and a list of unauthorized, blocked traffic.


B. Monitoring for vulnerabilities based on industry intelligence.


C. Comprehensive service level agreements with vendors.


D. Firewall and other network perimeter protection tools.





B.
  Monitoring for vulnerabilities based on industry intelligence.

Explanation

Detective controls are designed to identify and discover cyberthreats, attacks, or security weaknesses after they occur or as they are developing, enabling the organization to respond in a timely manner. Monitoring for vulnerabilities based on industry intelligence is a detective control because it involves continuously gathering and analyzing information about emerging threats, vulnerabilities, and attack patterns from industry sources, and then monitoring the organization's systems to detect whether those threats or vulnerabilities are present or being exploited. This activity helps the organization identify potential security issues before they cause significant harm and supports timely response and remediation.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. A list of trustworthy, good traffic and a list of unauthorized, blocked traffic
– This describes whitelists and blacklists, which are preventive controls used to allow or block traffic based on predefined rules. They are designed to stop unauthorized activity before it occurs, not to detect it after the fact, so this is not a detective control.

C. Comprehensive service level agreements with vendors
– Service level agreements (SLAs) are contractual documents that define expected service levels, including performance, availability, and security obligations. They are administrative and contractual controls, not detective controls designed to identify cyberthreats or attacks.

D. Firewall and other network perimeter protection tools
– Firewalls and perimeter protection tools are preventive controls. They are designed to block unauthorized traffic and prevent attacks from reaching the organization's network. While they may generate logs that support detection, their primary purpose is prevention, not detection.

Reference:

IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Information Technology — Specifically cybersecurity controls, including the distinction between preventive, detective, and corrective controls.

The chief audit executive (CAE) has been asked to evaluate the chief technology officer's proposal to outsource several key functions in the organization's IT department. Which of the following would be the most appropriate action for the CAE to determine whether the proposal aligns with the organization's strategy?


A. Understand strategic context and evaluate whether supporting information is reliable and complete.


B. Ascertain whether governance and approval processes are transparent, documented, and completed.


C. Perform a due diligence review or asses management's review of provider operations.


D. Identify key performance measures and data sources.





A.
  Understand strategic context and evaluate whether supporting information is reliable and complete.

Explanation

When the CAE is asked to evaluate whether a proposal, such as outsourcing key IT functions, aligns with the organization's strategy, the most appropriate first action is to understand the strategic context and evaluate whether the supporting information is reliable and complete. To assess strategic alignment, the CAE must first understand the organization's overall strategy, objectives, and priorities, and then determine whether the proposal supports those objectives. This requires evaluating the information provided by the chief technology officer to ensure it is accurate, complete, and reliable, so the CAE can form a sound judgment about whether the outsourcing proposal truly aligns with the organization's strategic direction. This is the foundational step for any evaluation of strategic alignment.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Ascertain whether governance and approval processes are transparent, documented, and completed
– While governance and approval processes are important, this action focuses on whether the proposal followed proper procedures rather than on whether it aligns with the organization's strategy. It addresses process compliance, not strategic fit, so it is not the most appropriate action for determining strategic alignment.

C. Perform a due diligence review or assess management's review of provider operations
– Due diligence on provider operations is relevant to evaluating the outsourcing arrangement's feasibility, risks, and provider capabilities. However, it does not directly address whether the proposal aligns with the organization's strategy. Due diligence is a subsequent step once strategic alignment and the decision to consider outsourcing have been established.

D. Identify key performance measures and data sources
– Identifying key performance measures and data sources is important for monitoring and evaluating the outsourcing arrangement after it is implemented. It does not address the initial question of whether the proposal aligns with the organization's strategy, so it is not the most appropriate action at this stage.

Reference:

IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Business Acumen / Strategic Management and Governance — Specifically strategic alignment, the CAE's role in evaluating strategic initiatives, and the importance of understanding strategic context and reliable information.

Which of the following backup methodologies would be most efficient in backing up a database in the production environment?


A. Disk mirroring of the data being stored on the database.


B. A differential backup that is performed on a weekly basis.


C. An array of independent disks used to back up the database.


D. An incremental backup of the database on a daily basis.





D.
  An incremental backup of the database on a daily basis.

Explanation

An  incremental backup  copies only the data that has changed since the  last backup of any type , whether full or incremental. In a busy production database environment, performing daily incremental backups is the most time- and storage-efficient methodology because it processes the smallest volume of data during each backup window. This minimizes bandwidth consumption, limits system overhead, and significantly shortens the required backup window.

Why the Incorrect Options Fail

A. Disk mirroring of the data being stored on the database is incorrect – Disk mirroring, such as RAID 1, provides fault tolerance and real-time redundancy, not a backup methodology. If data is corrupted, deleted, or infected with malware on the primary drive, the mirrored drive immediately replicates the corruption, providing no protection against logical data loss.

B. A differential backup that is performed on a weekly basis is incorrect – A differential backup copies all changes made since the  last full backup . As the week progresses, the amount of data backed up grows larger, making it less storage- and time-efficient than daily incremental backups. A weekly schedule can also create a large  Recovery Point Objective (RPO)  exposure window, potentially resulting in significant data loss if a failure occurs before the next backup.

C. An array of independent disks used to back up the database is incorrect –  Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a hardware storage architecture designed primarily for system availability, fault tolerance, and performance. It is not a discrete backup strategy because changes, corruption, or deletions can be replicated across the array.

Reference:

IIA CIA Exam Syllabus: Part 3, Section IV – Information Technology & Business Continuity — Specifically backup strategies, recovery metrics such as RTO/RPO, and storage controls.

Which of the following analytical techniques would an internal auditor use to verify that none of an organization's employees are receiving fraudulent invoice payments?


A. Perform gap testing.


B. Join different data sources.


C. Perform duplicate testing.


D. Calculate statistical parameters.





B.
  Join different data sources.

Explanation

To verify that none of an organization's employees are receiving fraudulent invoice payments, an internal auditor would need to compare data from different sources, such as the employee master file (names, addresses, bank account details, and tax identification numbers) against the vendor master file and invoice payment records. By joining different data sources, the auditor can identify matches or relationships that should not exist, such as an employee's bank account or address appearing in the vendor payment file. This could indicate a fraudulent invoice payment scheme, such as a fictitious vendor created by an employee. Data joining is the analytical technique that enables this cross-referencing and is therefore the most appropriate technique for detecting this type of fraud.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Perform gap testing
– Gap testing is used to identify missing items in a sequence, such as missing check numbers, invoice numbers, or purchase order numbers, to detect unrecorded or missing transactions. While useful for detecting certain types of errors or fraud, it does not directly compare employee data with vendor payment data, so it would not effectively identify employees receiving fraudulent invoice payments.

C. Perform duplicate testing
– Duplicate testing identifies duplicate payments or duplicate entries in a data set, such as the same invoice being paid twice. While this can detect some fraudulent payments, it does not specifically compare employee information against vendor payment records, so it would not reliably identify employees who are receiving fraudulent invoice payments through fictitious vendors.

D. Calculate statistical parameters
– Calculating statistical parameters, such as means, standard deviations, and trends, is useful for identifying anomalies, outliers, or unusual patterns in data. While this can support fraud detection, it does not directly compare employee and vendor data to identify improper relationships, so it is not the most appropriate technique for this specific objective.

Reference:

IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Information Technology — Specifically data analytics techniques used in audit engagements, including data joining, gap testing, duplicate testing, and statistical analysis.

Which of the following intangible assets is considered to have an indefinite life?


A. Underground oil deposits


B. Copyright


C. Trademark


D. Land





C.
  Trademark

Explanation

A trademark is an intangible asset that can have an indefinite useful life because it can be renewed indefinitely, as long as the owner continues to use it and pays the required renewal fees. Trademarks identify and distinguish goods or services and can retain their value for an indefinite period. Under accounting standards, intangible assets with indefinite useful lives are not amortized but are tested for impairment at least annually. Because a trademark can legally be renewed without a foreseeable limit, it is considered to have an indefinite life, making it the correct answer.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Underground oil deposits
– Underground oil deposits are natural resources (wasting assets) that are physically consumed as they are extracted. They have a finite, depletable life, and their cost is allocated through depletion. They are not intangible assets with indefinite lives.

B. Copyright
– A copyright has a finite legal life, such as the life of the author plus a specified number of years, or a set term for corporate works. It is an intangible asset with a definite useful life and is amortized over that period. It does not have an indefinite life.

D. Land
– Land is a tangible asset, not an intangible asset. While land generally has an indefinite life and is not depreciated, the question asks specifically about intangible assets, and land does not belong in that category.

Reference:

IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Financial Management / Accounting — Specifically intangible assets, useful lives, and amortization versus impairment.


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