IIA-CIA-Part1 Practice Test Questions

566 Questions


Topic 1: Volume A

Which of the following procedures would provide the best evidence of the effectiveness of a credit-granting function?


A. Observe the process.


B. Review the trend in receivables write-offs.


C. Ask the credit manager about the effectiveness of the function.


D. Check for evidence of credit approval on a sample of customer orders.





B.
  Review the trend in receivables write-offs.

Summary
This question asks for the best procedure to gather evidence on the effectiveness of a credit-granting function. Effectiveness is measured by outcomes and results. While other procedures can verify if a process is being followed, the ultimate result of a poor credit function is an increase in customers who do not pay, leading to bad debt write-offs. A trend analysis of these write-offs provides direct, objective evidence of the function's real-world performance.

Correct Option

B. Review the trend in receivables write-offs.
This provides the best evidence of effectiveness because it measures the ultimate outcome of the credit decisions. A decreasing or stable trend in write-offs, especially as sales grow, indicates that the credit function is successfully identifying creditworthy customers. A rising trend signals that the function is failing, resulting in bad debts. This is a direct, quantitative result of how well the process works.

Incorrect Option

A. Observe the process.
Observation can verify that the process exists and is being performed, but it cannot determine if the decisions being made are correct or effective. An employee can be observed diligently following all steps but still making poor credit judgments.

C. Ask the credit manager about the effectiveness of the function.
This is the least reliable form of evidence. It is subjective and inherently biased, as the manager has a personal interest in presenting the function in a positive light. It provides no objective verification of performance.

D. Check for evidence of credit approval on a sample of customer orders.
This is a test of compliance with the process, not its effectiveness. It proves that approvals are happening, but it does not indicate whether those approvals were granted to customers who ultimately paid their bills. A function can be 100% compliant yet completely ineffective.

Reference
The IIA's Standard 2310: Identifying Information requires that internal auditors must identify sufficient, reliable, relevant, and useful information to achieve engagement objectives. The trend in receivables write-offs is highly relevant and reliable information for the specific objective of assessing the effectiveness of the credit function, as it is an objective outcome measure.

The chief audit executive's responsibility regarding control processes includes:


A. Assisting senior management and the audit committee in the development of an annual assessment about internal control.


B. Overseeing the establishment of internal control processes.


C. Maintaining the organization's governance processes.


D. Ensuring that the internal audit activity assesses all control processes annually.





A.
  Assisting senior management and the audit committee in the development of an annual assessment about internal control.

Summary
This question addresses the specific role and responsibility of the Chief Audit Executive (CAE) concerning the organization's system of internal control. The CAE's role is one of assurance, evaluation, and advisement. The CAE does not manage or implement controls but provides independent assessment and expert support to those who are responsible for the control environment—senior management and the board.

Correct Option

A. Assisting senior management and the audit committee in the development of an annual assessment about internal control.
This is a core responsibility of the CAE. Management is responsible for establishing and maintaining controls, and the board provides oversight. The CAE's role is to assist these parties by performing testing, providing objective analysis, and offering expertise to help them form their own annual assessment of the effectiveness of the internal control system. This aligns with the internal audit activity's assurance and consulting roles.

Incorrect Option

B. Overseeing the establishment of internal control processes.
This is incorrect because it is the responsibility of senior management to establish and maintain internal controls. The CAE provides independent assurance on the adequacy and effectiveness of those controls but does not oversee their establishment, as this would impair the internal audit activity's independence and objectivity.

C. Maintaining the organization's governance processes.
This is the responsibility of the board of directors and senior management. The internal audit activity assesses and makes recommendations for improving the governance process, but it does not have the authority to maintain or manage it.

D. Ensuring that the internal audit activity assesses all control processes annually.
This is not required nor practical. The internal audit plan is risk-based. The CAE must ensure that the audit universe is risk-assessed periodically, but not that every control is tested every year. Resources are focused on areas of highest risk.

Reference
The IIA's International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing, specifically:

Standard 2130: Control states that "The internal audit activity must assist the organization in maintaining effective controls by evaluating their effectiveness and efficiency and by promoting continuous improvement."

The related Interpretation clarifies that this includes "evaluating the adequacy and effectiveness of controls in responding to risks within the organization's governance, operations, and information systems regarding the achievement of the organization's strategic objectives." This supporting role is described in option A.

In order to provide the most useful information for an organization's risk management decisions,which of the following should be assessed?


A. Risk levels for future events based on the degree of uncertainty of those events and their cost of mitigation.


B. Inherent and control risks and their impact on the extent of financial misstatements.


C. Risk levels of current and future events,their effect on the achievement of the organization's objectives,and their underlying causes.


D. Risk levels of current and future events,their impact on the organization's mission,and the potential for the elimination of existing risk factors.





C.
  Risk levels of current and future events,their effect on the achievement of the organization's objectives,and their underlying causes.

Summary
This question asks what constitutes the most useful risk assessment for supporting management decisions. A comprehensive and decision-useful risk assessment must be forward-looking, contextual, and diagnostic. It should not only identify potential threats but also connect them to organizational goals and explore their root causes to enable effective management responses.

Correct Option

C. Risk levels of current and future events, their effect on the achievement of the organization's objectives, and their underlying causes.
This is the most complete and useful assessment for risk management decisions. It provides a full picture by:

Assessing Risk Levels: Quantifying or qualifying the magnitude of risks.

Considering Current and Future Events: Looking at both existing and emerging risks.

Linking to Objectives: Connecting risks directly to what the organization is trying to achieve, which is the core of enterprisewide risk management.

Identifying Underlying Causes: Providing insight into why the risk exists, which is essential for developing effective risk responses (e.g., mitigation, acceptance) rather than just treating symptoms.

Incorrect Option

A. Risk levels for future events based on the degree of uncertainty of those events and their cost of mitigation.
This is too narrow. It ignores current risks and, crucially, it does not link the risks to the organization's objectives. Knowing the cost of mitigation is useless without understanding the risk's potential impact on strategic goals.

B. Inherent and control risks and their impact on the extent of financial misstatements.
This is a specific, traditional internal audit risk assessment model focused primarily on financial reporting objectives. It is not broad enough to support the wider range of strategic and operational risk management decisions for the entire organization.

D. Risk levels of current and future events, their impact on the organization's mission, and the potential for the elimination of existing risk factors.
While linking to the mission is good, the "potential for elimination" is a flawed concept. Not all risks can or should be eliminated; many must be managed, mitigated, or accepted. Focusing on elimination is unrealistic and not a sound basis for decision-making.

Reference
The IIA's IPPF, particularly the Definition of Internal Auditing, states that internal auditing helps an organization accomplish its objectives by bringing a systematic, disciplined approach to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of risk management, control, and governance processes. A risk assessment is only useful for this purpose if it is directly tied to the achievement of the organization's objectives, as described in option C. This aligns with the principles of the COSO ERM framework, which the IIA recognizes.

A manufacturing firm uses hazardous materials in the production of its products. An audit of the firm's processes related to hazardous materials shouldinclude. I.Recommending an environmental management system as part of policies and procedures.
II.Verifying the existence of tracking records for these materials from creation to destruction.
III.Using consultants to avoid self-incrimination of the firm in the event illegalities were detected in an environmental audit.
IV.Evaluating the cost provided for in an environmental liability accrual account.


A. IIonly


B. III and IVonly


C. I,II,and IVonly


D. I,III,and IVonly





C.
  I,II,and IVonly

Summary
This question focuses on the appropriate scope of an internal audit of hazardous materials processes. The audit should evaluate the adequacy of controls, verify compliance with procedures and regulations, and assess the financial reporting for related liabilities. It must be conducted with the internal audit activity's standard independence and objectivity, without introducing unnecessary legal shields that would compromise the audit process.

Correct Option

C. I, II, and IV only
I. Recommending an environmental management system... is a valid consulting activity. The internal audit activity can recommend improvements to the control and governance processes, which includes policies and procedures for managing hazardous materials.

II. Verifying the existence of tracking records... is a core audit procedure. It tests the operational control and compliance with regulations (cradle-to-grave tracking) for hazardous materials.

IV. Evaluating the cost provided for in an environmental liability accrual account is a critical financial assurance activity. It assesses whether the company has properly accounted for the future costs of cleanup and disposal, impacting the accuracy of financial reporting.

Incorrect Option

III. Using consultants to avoid self-incrimination...
is not an appropriate action for the internal audit activity. The purpose of an internal audit is to provide independent, objective assurance and consulting activity to add value and improve operations. Invoking legal privileges like avoiding self-incrimination contradicts this purpose and implies the audit is being conducted for legal protection rather than improvement. Internal audit work should be focused on improvement, and legal counsel would manage any separate, legally privileged investigation.

Explanation of Omitted Item (III)

III. Using consultants to avoid self-incrimination...
his is incorrect and potentially harmful. While a company might use a special, legally privileged investigation under attorney-client privilege for specific legal concerns, this is not the standard role of the internal audit function. Internal audit reports are typically not protected by privilege. Designing an internal audit specifically to avoid creating evidence undermines its core principles of objectivity, transparency, and adding value to the organization.

Reference
The IIA's International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing, specifically:

Standard 2130: Control requires the internal audit activity to assist the organization in maintaining effective controls, which supports items I and II.

Standard 2120: Risk Management requires the internal audit activity to evaluate risk exposures relating to governance, operations, and information systems, which includes environmental and financial reporting risks (item IV).

The use of a legally privileged investigation (the concept behind item III) is a separate legal strategy and falls outside the standard assurance and consulting role of internal auditing as defined by the IPPF.

In developing an appropriate work program for an audit engagement,the most important factor for an audit supervisor to consider isthe:


A. Availability of records and data.


B. Potential impact of risks.


C. Capabilities of audit personnel.


D. Time required to complete the engagement.





B.
  Potential impact of risks.

Summary
This question addresses the fundamental principle of developing an audit work program. The engagement work program is the detailed plan of steps designed to achieve the audit objectives. According to the IIA Standards, the entire internal audit process must be risk-based. Therefore, the nature, timing, and extent of the audit procedures detailed in the work program must be directly responsive to the risks identified during the planning phase.

Correct Option

B. Potential impact of risks.
This is the most important factor. The work program is the tactical execution of the risk-based audit plan. Audit procedures are designed specifically to gather evidence about how the organization manages its most significant risks. The potential impact of a risk determines the extent of testing required. Higher risks demand more rigorous and extensive audit procedures, while lower risks may require only limited testing. The work program must be tailored to address these risks directly.

Incorrect Option

A. Availability of records and data:
While practical, this is a logistical consideration, not the primary driver of the program's design. If certain records are unavailable, the auditor must find alternative procedures to test the risk, not ignore the risk altogether.

C. Capabilities of audit personnel:
This is a resource management factor for the Chief Audit Executive, but it should not dictate the design of the work program. The program must address the risks; if the team lacks skills, the CAE must find a way to obtain them (e.g., training, using a specialist) rather than designing an inadequate program.

D. Time required to complete the engagement:
Time is a project management constraint. While it influences scheduling and resource allocation, it does not override the need to perform sufficient procedures to address the identified risks. The scope and objectives, driven by risk, define the work—not the predetermined time available.

Reference
The IIA's International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing, specifically Standard 2210: Engagement Objectives, which states that "Objectives must be established for each engagement." Furthermore, Standard 2210.A1 requires that "Internal auditors must conduct a preliminary assessment of the risks relevant to the activity under review. Engagement objectives must reflect the results of this assessment." The work program, which details how to achieve these objectives, is therefore fundamentally derived from the risk assessment, making the potential impact of risks the most important factor.

Which of the following is not an appropriate type of coordination between the internal audit activity and regulatory auditors?


A. Regulatory auditors share their perspective on risk management,control,and governance with the internal auditors.


B. Internal auditors perform fieldwork at the direction of the regulatory auditors.


C. Internal auditors review copies of regulatory reports in planning related internal engagements.


D. Regulatory and internal auditors exchange information about planned activities.





B.
  Internal auditors perform fieldwork at the direction of the regulatory auditors.

Summary
This question focuses on the appropriate boundaries for coordination between internal and regulatory auditors. Effective coordination includes sharing perspectives, reports, and audit plans to improve coverage and efficiency. However, the internal audit activity must maintain its independence and serve the organization's objectives. Performing work under the direct command of another audit function compromises this fundamental independence.

Correct Option

B. Internal auditors perform fieldwork at the direction of the regulatory auditors.
This is not appropriate coordination. It violates the internal audit activity's independence and objectivity. The internal audit activity's work program and activities must be directed by the Chief Audit Executive (CAE) based on the organization's own risk assessment and the approved audit plan. Performing work at the direction of an external party subordinates the internal audit function to the regulatory auditors, making them an extension of the regulatory body and impairing their ability to provide independent assurance to the board and senior management.

Incorrect Option

A. Regulatory auditors share their perspective on risk management, control, and governance with the internal auditors.
This is appropriate and beneficial. Sharing perspectives allows the internal audit activity to gain valuable insight into external regulatory concerns, which can be used to enhance the internal risk assessment and audit plan.

C. Internal auditors review copies of regulatory reports in planning related internal engagements.
This is a standard and efficient practice. Reviewing regulatory reports helps internal auditors understand findings and focus their work on areas of known concern, ensuring adequate follow-up and avoiding duplication of effort.

D. Regulatory and internal auditors exchange information about planned activities.
This is encouraged by the Standards. Excluding information about planned audit activities helps both parties coordinate their efforts, schedule audits to minimize disruption, and ensure comprehensive coverage of key risk areas.

Reference
The IIA's International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing, specifically Standard 2050: Coordination, states that "The chief audit executive should share information and coordinate activities with other internal and external assurance and consulting service providers to ensure proper coverage and minimize duplication of efforts." However, this coordination must not compromise the internal audit activity's independence or objectivity. Performing work under the direction of an external party, as in option B, would be a clear impairment of that independence.

An organization that outsources much of its internal audit work to an external service provider is planning for an external quality assessment. Which of the following options would accomplish this task and be in conformance with the Standards?


A. External industry associate that performed a similar review for a supplier of the organization.


B. A team from an independent entity that previously employed the chief audit executive of the organization.


C. A team under the direction of the organization's chief audit executive with validation by aformer manager of the internal audit activity.


D. The same external service provider because of its competency and experience with the organization.





A.
  External industry associate that performed a similar review for a supplier of the organization.

Summary
This question concerns the requirements for an external quality assessment (EQA) as mandated by the IIA Standards. An EQA must be conducted by qualified, independent assessors who are free from any real or perceived conflicts of interest. The assessment must be objective and credible, which requires that the reviewers have no past or present relationships with the internal audit activity or its personnel that could impair their judgment.

Correct Option

A. External industry associate that performed a similar review for a supplier of the organization.
This is the only option that demonstrates sufficient independence. An "external industry associate" (e.g., another company's internal audit department or a qualified consulting firm) that has no direct reporting relationship, financial interest, or significant conflict with the organization is acceptable. Having performed a review for a supplier is a sufficiently distant relationship that does not typically impair independence for this purpose.

Incorrect Option

B. A team from an independent entity that previously employed the chief audit executive...
This creates an unacceptable familiarity threat and impairment to independence. The previous employment relationship between the CAE and the review team could lead to a real or perceived bias, preventing an entirely objective assessment.

C. A team under the direction of the organization's chief audit executive with validation by a former manager...
This describes a self-assessment with external validation, which is only permitted for a limited time under specific conditions for very small audit functions. Furthermore, using a former manager introduces a familiarity threat and does not meet the full independence requirement for a full external assessment.

D. The same external service provider because of its competency and experience...
This is a severe conflict of interest. An external service provider cannot independently assess the quality of its own work. This would be a self-review threat and completely lacks objectivity and credibility.

Reference
The IIA's International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing, specifically Standard 1312: External Assessments. It requires that external assessments must be conducted at least once every five years by a qualified, independent assessor or assessment team from outside the organization. The interpretation of this standard explicitly states that "Independence is enhanced when the reviewer has no past or present relationship with the internal audit activity..." and that the "external service provider" that outsources the internal audit work is not considered independent for conducting the EQA.

Internal auditors exercise judgment about the type and amount of information to be collected. The primary purpose of this judgment is to:


A. Eliminate the risk of drawing incorrect conclusions.


B. Minimize the cost of the audit engagement.


C. Comply with the Standards.


D. Provide a sound basis for audit observations and recommendations.





D.
  Provide a sound basis for audit observations and recommendations.

Summary
This question addresses the fundamental purpose of professional judgment in gathering audit evidence. The entire audit process is designed to form a basis for the final audit communication. The judgment about the type (nature) and amount (sufficiency) of information is not an end in itself; its primary purpose is to ensure that the evidence collected is adequate to support well-founded, credible, and actionable audit observations and recommendations.

Correct Option

D. Provide a sound basis for audit observations and recommendations.
This is the primary purpose. Audit observations and recommendations are the key deliverables and value-drivers of an audit engagement. They must be based on sufficient, reliable, relevant, and useful information. The auditor's judgment in collecting information is directly aimed at building this evidentiary foundation, which gives credibility to the findings and ensures that the resulting recommendations are practical and persuasive.

Incorrect Option

A. Eliminate the risk of drawing incorrect conclusions.
It is impossible to completely eliminate this risk. Auditors provide reasonable, not absolute, assurance. Judgment helps to reduce the risk of incorrect conclusions to an acceptably low level, but elimination is not the primary purpose or a feasible outcome.

B. Minimize the cost of the audit engagement.
While efficient use of resources is a consideration, it is a secondary benefit, not the primary purpose. The main goal is to achieve the audit objectives and support the conclusions. Cost minimization should never compromise the quality and sufficiency of evidence needed for a sound basis.

C. Comply with the Standards.
Compliance with the Standards (such as Standard 2310 on Identifying Information) is a requirement that guides the auditor's judgment, but it is not the ultimate purpose. The purpose of following the standard is to achieve a higher goal: producing a high-quality, evidence-based audit report that adds value to the organization.

Reference
The IIA's International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing, specifically Standard 2310: Identifying Information, states that "Internal auditors must identify sufficient, reliable, relevant, and useful information to achieve the engagement’s objectives." The objective of an engagement is to provide observations and recommendations, making the collection of information for this purpose the primary reason for the auditor's judgment.

Which of the following describes a control weakness?


A.

Purchasing procedures are well designed and are followed unless otherwise directed by
the purchasing supervisor.


B.

Pre-numbered blank purchase orders are secured within the purchasing department.


C.

Normal operational purchases fall in the range from $500 to $1,000 with two signatures
required for purchases over $1,000.


D.

The purchasing agent invests in a publicly traded mutual fund that lists the stock of one
of the company's suppliers in its portfolio.





A.
  

Purchasing procedures are well designed and are followed unless otherwise directed by
the purchasing supervisor.



Which source of audit evidence would provide the least value in flowcharting an
organization's purchasing process?


A.

An interview with the purchasing supervisor.


B.

A review of a sample of purchase orders which were completed during the last month.


C.

A review of the purchasing policies and procedures manual.


D.

A walk-through of the process with a member of the purchasing staff.





B.
  

A review of a sample of purchase orders which were completed during the last month.



Two individuals are being considered for an audit team that is to perform a highly technical review.
Which of the following situations would preclude selection of the individual for the audit due
to an objectivity concern?
I. Person A is a member of the internal audit staff and has the required technical skills.
Person A participated in a controls review of the system to be audited when it was being
developed.
II.Person B is a technical specialist who understands the audit area but is not a member of
the internal audit staff. Although person B has personal credibility in the information
systems department to be audited,person B works for another department in the
organization.


A.

Ionly


B.

IIonly


C.

Both I and II.


D.

Neither I nor II.





D.
  

Neither I nor II.



It would be appropriate for an internal audit activity to use consultants with expertise in
health-care benefits when the internal audit activity is:
I. Conducting an audit of the organization's estimate of its liability for post retirement
benefits,which include health care benefits.
II.Comparing the cost of the organization's health care program with that of other programs
offered in the industry.
III.Training its staff to conduct an audit of health care costs in a major division of the organization.


A.

Ionly


B.

I and IIIonly


C.

II and IIIonly


D.

I,II,and III.





D.
  

I,II,and III.




Page 2 out of 48 Pages
Previous