A 21-year-old patient has difficulty swallowing. The patient is leaning forward and drooling. The skin is hot to the touch. The vital signs are BP 128/82 mmHg, P 116/min, R 22/min, and SpO 94% on room air. What should the EMT do for this patient? Select the two correct options.
A. Transport the patient in the recovery position
B. Transport the patient in a position of comfort
C. Administer humidified oxygen
D. Place the patient on CPAP
E. Suction the airway
Explanation:
This patient is presenting with a potentially life-threatening airway obstruction. Let's analyze the clues:
Difficulty swallowing, leaning forward, drooling:
This is a classic presentation of epiglottitis, even in a young adult. The drooling indicates the patient cannot manage their own secretions, a sign of a severe upper airway problem. Leaning forward is a tripod position, which is a compensatory mechanism to keep the airway open.
Skin is hot to the touch: This suggests a high fever, pointing to a serious infection as the underlying cause.
Vital signs:
Tachycardia (P 116/m
in): Consistent with fever, pain, and anxiety.
Tachypnea (R 22/min): The patient is working to breathe but is not in severe respiratory distress yet.
SpO2 94% on room air: This is mild hypoxia. While not critically low, it is a significant warning sign given the other symptoms. It indicates the infection and swelling are beginning to impair oxygenation.
The paramount concern here is the airway. Any agitation, manipulation, or forced positioning could cause the inflamed epiglottis to spasm and close completely, leading to total airway obstruction and cardiac arrest.
Now, let's evaluate each option:
Why E (Suction the airway) is CORRECT:
The patient is drooling because they cannot swallow their secretions. These secretions pose a direct risk of aspiration (breathing them into the lungs) or further aggravating the airway. Gentle, careful suctioning to clear these secretions is a critical and appropriate airway management step. It must be done without gagging the patient, as this could trigger a spasm.
Why B (Transport the patient in a position of comfort) is CORRECT:
The patient has naturally assumed the tripod position (leaning forward) because it is the only position that helps keep their airway open. Forcing them onto their side (recovery position) or onto their back could cause immediate airway compromise. The safest approach is to allow the patient to maintain whatever position makes breathing easiest for them and to transport immediately without delay.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Why A (Transport the patient in the recovery position) is INCORRECT:
The recovery position is for unresponsive patients with a patent airway to prevent aspiration. This patient is conscious and has found a position that works for them. Moving them could be catastrophic. This is a classic NREMT trick, distinguishing between a standard protocol and a situation-specific exception.
Why C (Administer humidified oxygen) is INCORRECT:
While oxygen might be beneficial, the method of administration is critical. Placing a mask on the patient's face could cause extreme agitation, fear, and fighting against it. This agitation and the physical presence of the mask could easily trigger the spasmodic airway closure we are trying to avoid. If oxygen is given, it should be done in the least invasive way possible (e.g., holding a nasal cannula near the face or using a blow-by technique), but this is not the most critical intervention. The question asks for what you should do, and this carries a significant risk.
Why D (Place the patient on CPAP) is INCORRECT and DANGEROUS:
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) is absolutely contraindicated in this scenario. CPAP forces positive pressure into the airway. In a patient with a severe upper airway obstruction like epiglottitis, this pressure can overwhelm the already-swollen tissues and forcefully blow the epiglottis shut, causing immediate and complete airway obstruction. CPAP is for conditions like pulmonary edema (fluid in the lungs), not for physical obstruction in the upper airway.
Reference to NREMT Guidelines and Pathophysiology:
NREEMT Scope of Practice: Airway management, including suctioning, is a core EMT skill. The exam tests judgment in applying these skills.
NREMT Knowledge Standard:
Medicine (Infectious Diseases & Respiratory
Emergencies):
Requires recognition of conditions like epiglottitis and the appropriate, conservative managemen
t to avoid worsening the patient's condition.
AHA/ECC Guidelines:
Stress the primacy of the airway and the need to minimize agitation in patients with suspected upper airway infections.
Pathophysiology:
Epiglottitis is a bacterial infection causing rapid swelling of the epiglottis. Management focuses on minimizing stress, providing supplemental oxygen cautiously, and ensuring rapid transport for definitive care (which often includes intubation in a controlled surgical environment).
Which of the following sections are designated by command at an MCI? Select the three correct options.
A. Planning
B. Logistics
C. Catering
D. Aviation
E. Staging
F. Finance
Explanation:
Step-by-Step Reasoning
ICS / NIMS structure at an MCI:
The Incident Command System (ICS) organizes response under 5 major functional areas:
Command
Operations
Planning
Logistics
Finance/Administration
This is standardized under NIMS (National Incident Management System) and tested heavily on NREMT exams.
Which are designated by Command?
At an MCI, the Incident Commander (IC) establishes the command structure and designates section chiefs for:
Planning (collects/evaluates info, tracks resources, develops action plans).
Logistics (provides support/resources such as equipment, food, medical supplies).
Finance/Admin (tracks costs, time, claims, reimbursements).
Why the others are wrong:
C. Catering
→ Not an ICS section. Food is part of the Logistics Section, but there’s no “Catering Section.”
D. Aviation
→ Specialized unit within Operations (e.g., Air Ops Branch), but not a main ICS section.
E. Staging
→ This is a function within Operations, not a section. It’s where resources (ambulances, engines) wait until deployed.
References
FEMA: ICS-100, ICS-200 training manuals (NIMS doctrine).
AAOS EMT 12th Edition, Chapter on Incident Management and MCI Operations.
FEMA: Incident Command System Overview (ICS-100) – Five major sections: FEMA ICS PDF
.
You have consulted with on-line medical direction to terminate resuscitation of a 74- year-old female. How should you inform her family of this decision?
A. "She has died."
B. "She has passed."
C. "She didn't make it."
D. "She is at peace."
Explanation:
When informing family members of a patient's death, clarity and compassion are paramount. The phrase "She has died" is:
Direct and unambiguous, avoiding euphemisms that can cause confusion.
Medically a
ccurate, aligning with professional standards for death notification.
Respectful, without being emotionally manipulative or vague.
According to the National EMS Education Standards and guidance from AAOS Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured, EMTs are trained to deliver death notifications using clear, honest language. Euphemisms like “passed” or “at peace” may be culturally acceptable in some settings, but they risk misinterpretation — especially in high-stress moments.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
B. "She has passed."
While common in casual conversation, this is a euphemism. It can be misunderstood, especially by children or non-native speakers.
C. "She didn't make it."
Informal and emotionally charged. It lacks the clinical clarity needed in EMS communication.
D. "She is at peace."
Highly interpretive and spiritually suggestive. Not appropriate for initial notification, though it may be used later in supportive dialogue.
Best Practices for EMT Death Notification:
Use simple, direct language: “I’m sorry, but she has died.”
Pause for silence. Let the family absorb the information.
Offer support: “Is there someone I can call for you?”
Avoid medical jargon or vague phrases.
📚 Reference:
AAOS Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured, 12th Edition
National EMS Education Standards – EMS Operations Module
NREMT Candidate Handbook – Professional Communication Guidelines
A patient has facial drooping, left side paralysis, and slurred speech. The vital signs are BP 160/100, P 100, R 20, and SpO2 96% on room air. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for this patient?
A. Administer oxygen at 12 LPM
B. Protect the left arm during transport
C. Place the patient in a supine position
D. Avoid asking the patient questions due to dysphasia
Explanation:
This patient presents with the classic triad of stroke symptoms: facial drooping, unilateral paralysis, and slurred speech. The appropriate intervention is one that addresses a direct complication of the patient's condition without violating treatment protocols.
Why B is Correct:
The patient has left-side paralysis, meaning the arm is insensate and lacks motor control. It is vulnerable to injury from trauma during movement (e.g., hitting a doorway, getting caught) or from poor positioning that could cause nerve compression or joint damage. Protecting and securing the paralyzed limb is a fundamental standard of care that prevents further injury and falls squarely within an EMT's scope of practice for patient safety and comfort.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Administer oxygen at 12 LPM:
This is incorrect and not supported by current guidelines. The patient's SpO2 is 96% on room air, indicating adequate oxygenation. The American Heart Association (AHA) guidelines state that supplemental oxygen should only be administered to stroke patients if their SpO2 falls below 94%. Unnecessary oxygen administration is not benign and could potentially cause harm by promoting vasoconstriction.
C. Place the patient in a supine position:
This is incorrect and potentially dangerous. A fully supine position increases the risk of aspiration in a stroke patient, who likely has dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). The appropriate position is semi-Fowler's (head elevated 30-45 degrees) to help protect the airway and potentially reduce intracranial pressure, provided the blood pressure can support it (which it can in this case, at 160/100 mmHg).
D. Avoid asking the patient questions due to dysphasia:
This is incorrect and represents a critical failure in assessment. Dysphasia (impaired speech) is a key diagnostic finding in stroke. Avoiding questions prevents the EMT from performing a crucial stroke scale assessment (like the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale), which includes checking speech. This information is vital for the hospital to determine treatment eligibility (e.g., thrombolytics) and provides a critical baseline for the patient's neurological status.
References:
American Heart Association (AHA) Guidelines for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation and Emergency Cardiovascular Care (2020): Specifically address prehospital stroke management, recommending oxygen only for hypoxia (SpO2 <94%) and emphasizing rapid transport and prenotification.
NREMT Psychomotor Competency:
Neurological Assessment: Requires EMTs to perform a neurological exam, which includes assessing speech and motor function, directly contradicting option D.
National EMS Scope of Practice Model:
Includes "airway management" and "medical/cardiac care," which encompass the decision-making for oxygen administration and positioning outlined in options A and C.
Standard Patient Safety Protocols:
The principle of protecting insensate or paralyzed limbs from injury is a universal standard of care across all healthcare settings.
Which of the following components can be determined by assessing the mechanism of injury? Select the two correct options.
A. Extent of injury
B. Destination facility
C. Chances of survival
D. Patient's medical history
E. Need for additional resources
Explanation:
A. Extent of injury — Correct
The mechanism of injury provides valuable clues about the type and possible extent of trauma. For example, a high-speed motor vehicle collision may cause internal bleeding, spinal fractures, or traumatic brain injury, while a fall from height suggests axial loading injuries to the spine, pelvis, or lower extremities. Although the MOI does not confirm an exact diagnosis, it helps the EMT anticipate the patterns and severity of possible injuries before physical examination findings are obvious. This anticipation guides both the primary survey and rapid transport decisions.
Reference:
AAOS, Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured, 12th Ed., Trauma Assessment chapter; CDC, Field Triage Guidelines for Injured Patients (2023).
E. Need for additional resources — Correct
MOI also determines the resources needed at the scene. For instance, a rollover collision with multiple patients may require several ambulances, fire suppression units, or extrication tools. A shooting scene could require law enforcement backup for safety, while a building collapse may call for search-and-rescue teams. By analyzing the MOI, EMTs can request these resources early, preventing delays in care and ensuring patient and provider safety.
Reference:
National EMS Education Standards, Scene Size-up section; FEMA ICS-100 training materials.
Incorrect Options
B. Destination facility — Incorrect
While MOI raises suspicion for certain injuries, it does not by itself determine the appropriate hospital. Destination decisions are made based on actual patient condition (airway compromise, hypotension, GCS score) and local trauma triage protocols. For example, a patient in shock from penetrating trauma goes to a trauma center regardless of MOI specifics. MOI may influence suspicion, but the patient’s clinical status ultimately guides transport destination.
Reference: CDC, Field Triage Decision Scheme: The National Trauma Triage Protocol.
C. Chances of survival — Incorrect
MOI suggests injury severity but cannot predict survival with certainty. Two patients with the same MOI may have very different outcomes based on physiology, pre-existing conditions, timeliness of care, and response to treatment. Predicting survival is beyond the EMT’s scope; EMTs focus on rapid recognition, stabilization, and transport. Survival probability is a retrospective assessment, not something determined at the scene based solely on MOI.
Reference: NAEMT, PHTLS: Prehospital Trauma Life Support, 9th Ed., Ch. 2.
D. Patient’s medical history — Incorrect
MOI is unrelated to the patient’s underlying medical history. Information about past illnesses, medications, allergies, and surgeries is gathered through the SAMPLE history or from family, bystanders, or medical alert identifiers. For example, knowing that a patient has hemophilia or is on anticoagulants is critical, but it cannot be learned from MOI; it requires history-taking.
Reference: AAOS EMT Textbook, Patient Assessment Chapter; National Registry of EMTs (NREMT) Psychomotor Exam Guide.
An unresponsive 79-year-old female has agonal respirations. You should
A. Open her airway and suction until clear
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Check for a pulse
D. Open her airway and ventilate her with a BVM
Explanation:
Agonal respirations are gasping, irregular breaths that occur during cardiac arrest or near-death states. They are not effective breathing and should be treated as absent respirations. However, agonal breathing can occur in both pulseless and perfusing patients, so the first priority is to determine whether the patient has a pulse.
According to the American Heart Association (AHA) Guidelines for CPR and ECC, and the National EMS Education Standards, the correct sequence for assessing an unresponsive patient is:
Assess responsiveness
Check for breathing and pulse simultaneously for no more than 10 seconds
If no pulse, begin CPR immediately
If pulse is present but breathing is inadequate, provide ventilations with a BVM
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Open her airway and suction until clear
Suctioning is only appropriate if there is visible obstruction or secretions. It’s not the first priority in agonal breathing unless airway compromise is evident.
B. Begin chest compressions
You must first confirm pulselessness. Starting compressions without checking for a pulse risks harming a patient who may still have circulation.
D. Open her airway and ventilate with a BVM
If the patient has a pulse and inadequate breathing, this is appropriate. But without checking for a pulse first, this step is premature.
📚 References:
AHA Guidelines for CPR and Emergency Cardiovascular Care (2020 Update)
National EMS Education Standards – Cardiology & Resuscitation Module
NREMT Candidate Handbook – Adult Resuscitation Protocols
A 44-year-old patient with diabetes feels weak and dizzy. The EMT provides oral glucose and transports the patient to the hospital, where the patient recovers. The EMT tells their partner they did not provide the patient with a blanket because they felt the patient was wasting their time. What best describes the action the EMT took?
A. Breach of duty
B. Breach of ethics
C. Negligence
D. Battery
Explanation:
The EMT’s statement — refusing to provide a blanket because they felt the patient was “wasting their time” — reflects a violation of professional conduct, not a failure in clinical care or legal duty. This is a breach of ethics, which refers to actions that violate the moral and professional standards expected of EMS providers.
According to the National EMS Code of Ethics and NREMT Professional Standards, EMTs are expected to:
Provide compassionate care to all patients, regardless of personal judgment.
Avoid discriminatory or dismissive behavior.
Uphold the dignity and welfare of the patient.
The EMT’s decision was not a clinical error (the patient received oral glucose and was transported), but the attitude and rationale behind withholding comfort measures (like a blanket) violates ethical standards.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Breach of duty
A breach of duty occurs when an EMT fails to perform a required clinical action (e.g., failing to treat hypoglycemia). In this case, the EMT fulfilled their clinical duty.
C. Negligence
Negligence requires four elements: duty to act, breach of duty, damages, and causation. Since the patient recovered and no harm occurred, this does not meet the legal threshold for negligence.
D. Battery
Battery is unwanted physical contact. There was no physical harm or unauthorized treatment here.
📚 References:
National EMS Code of Ethics (NHTSA)
NREMT Candidate Handbook – Ethics and Professionalism
AAOS Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured, 12th Edition
A program whose efforts are to limit the effects of an injury or illness that you cannot completely prevent is called
A. Secondary prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Reactive prevention
D. Proactive prevention
Explanation:
The key phrase in the question is "limit the effects of an injury or illness that you cannot completely prevent." This is the precise definition of secondary prevention.
Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and immediate response to a problem that has already occurred. The goal is to reduce the severity of the condition, provide timely treatment, and prevent complications. It is an intervention that happens after the initial event but aims to stop it from getting worse.
Examples in EMS/Public Health:
Performing CPR on a cardiac arrest patient (you cannot prevent the arrest at that moment, but you can limit its deadly effects).
Splinting a fractured limb to prevent further damage.
Administering aspirin to a heart attack patient to limit heart muscle damage.
Screening programs like mammograms (the cancer is present; the goal is to find it early to limit its effects).
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Primary Prevention:
This aims to completely prevent the injury or illness from ever happening in the first place. Examples include vaccination campaigns, health education on smoking cessation, or installing guardrails on roads. This is the opposite of the scenario described.
C. Reactive Prevention:
This is not a standard term in public health or medicine. While "reactive" implies responding after an event, it is not the accepted classification. The correct terms are primary, secondary, and tertiary.
D. Proactive Prevention:
This is also not a standard term. "Proactive" is more akin to primary prevention (preventing an event before it occurs). The question describes a reactive scenario, but the correct terminology is "secondary prevention."
Reference:
Public Health Model of Prevention: This model is a cornerstone of community health and injury prevention and is a key part of the NREMT curriculum.
Primary Prevention:
Prevents the initial occurrence (e.g., vaccines, education).
Secondary Prevention:
Limits the severity after the event has occurred (e.g., EMS intervention, early diagnosis).
Tertiary Prevention:
Focuses on rehabilitation and improving quality of life after a disease or injury has caused long-term effects (e.g., physical therapy, support groups).
Heat exhaustion is most frequently associated with
A. Hypovolemia
B. Hypertension
C. Bradycardia
D. Altered mental status
Explanation
Understanding heat exhaustion:
Heat exhaustion happens when prolonged exposure to high temperatures leads to fluid and electrolyte loss through heavy sweating.
The main pathophysiology = dehydration + hypovolemia (low circulating volume).
This causes weakness, dizziness, tachycardia, nausea, and cool/clammy skin.
Key signs of heat exhaustion:
Profuse sweating
Pale, cool, clammy skin
Tachycardia (fast pulse)
Hypotension (low BP) from volume loss
Dizziness, weakness, sometimes mild altered mental status
Core temp usually < 104°F (40°C)
Why the other options are wrong:
B. Hypertension ❌ – Patients with heat exhaustion are usually hypotensive due to fluid loss, not hypertensive.
C. Bradycardia ❌ – Instead, tachycardia (fast heart rate) is common as the body compensates for hypovolemia.
D. Altered mental status ❌ – This is a hallmark of heat stroke, not heat exhaustion. In heat exhaustion, patients are usually still alert but weak, dizzy, or nauseated.
References:
AAOS, Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured, 12th Ed., Chapter on Environmental Emergencies.
CDC: Heat-Related Illnesses (2022) – heat exhaustion linked with dehydration/hypovolemia; heat stroke linked with altered mental status.
American College of Emergency Physicians (ACEP) Clinical Policy on Heat Illness, 2021.
Which of the following actions are appropriate management for two-rescuer pediatric basic life support? Select the three correct options
A. Start CPR if the pulse rate is 72
B. Perform rescue breathing at a rate of 20 per minute
C. Compress at a rate of 180 per minute
D. Use the two-thumb-encircling-hands technique for infants
E. Perform compressions at a ratio of 15:2
F. Compress the chest one-half the diameter of the chest
🔍 Explanation:
These selections align with the American Heart Association (AHA) Pediatric BLS Guidelines and National EMS Education Standards for two-rescuer CPR in infants and children.
✅ Correct Options:
D. Two-thumb-encircling-hands technique for infants
This is the preferred method for two-rescuer infant CPR.
It provides better depth and consistency of compressions and allows for effective chest recoil.
AHA Pediatric BLS Guidelines recommend this over the two-finger technique when two rescuers are available.
E. Compressions at a ratio of 15:2
For two-rescuer pediatric CPR, the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio is 15:2.
This applies to both infants and children (up to puberty).
One-rescuer CPR uses 30:2, but two-rescuer CPR improves ventilation efficiency.
F. Compress the chest one-half the diameter of the chest
For infants and children, compress to a depth of at least one-third the anterior-posterior diameter of the chest:
~1.5 inches (4 cm) for infants
~2 inches (5 cm) for children
This ensures adequate perfusion during compressions.
❌ Incorrect Options:
A. Start CPR if the pulse rate is 72
CPR is indicated if the pulse is <60 bpm with signs of poor perfusion, despite adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
A pulse of 72 is above threshold, so CPR is not yet indicated.
B. Rescue breathing at 20 per minute
Rescue breathing rate for infants and children is 1 breath every 2–3 seconds, or 20–30 breaths per minute only if there's a pulse but inadequate breathing.
However, this rate is not part of CPR — it's part of respiratory support, and the question is about BLS CPR
.
C. Compress at a rate of 180 per minute
This is too fast.
AHA guidelines specify 100–120 compressions per minute for all age groups.
Excessive rate reduces perfusion due to inadequate recoil.
📚 References:
AHA Guidelines for CPR and ECC (2020 Update)
National EMS Education Standards – Cardiology & Resuscitation Module
NREMT Candidate Handbook – Pediatric BLS Protocols
Reassessment of a patient begins with repeating the
A. Vital signs
B. Primary survey
C. Secondary assessment
D. Scene size-up
Explanation:
Reassessment is a continuous process in patient care, designed to identify any changes in the patient's condition. It must begin by re-evaluating the most critical life-threats.
Why B is Correct:
The Primary Survey (or initial assessment) focuses on identifying and managing immediate threats to life using the XABCDE approach (e.g., eXanguination, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure). This is always the first and most important step in any reassessment because a patient's airway, breathing, or circulation status can deteriorate at any moment. Repeating this first ensures that any new or recurring life-threats are discovered and managed immediately.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Vital signs:
While vital signs are a component of the reassessment and are crucial for tracking trends, they are not the first step. A patient can have a catastrophic airway obstruction without any change in their blood pressure or pulse rate yet. You must first ensure the ABCs are intact.
C. Secondary assessment:
The secondary assessment is a more detailed head-to-toe exam and history taking. Repeating this full exam is part of the ongoing reassessment process, but it is only done after you have confirmed that the patient's primary survey (ABCs) remains stable.
D. Scene size-up:
The scene size-up is a one-time action performed on arrival to ensure the scene is safe for you, your crew, and the patient. It is not repeated as part of the patient reassessment process. Once the scene is secured and you are with the patient, your focus shifts to patient assessment.
Reference:
NREET Skill Sheets:
The reassessment step in both medical and trauma practical skill sheets explicitly begins with re-evaluating the patient's mental status and ABCs (the core of the primary survey).
Prehospital Trauma Life Support (PHTLS) and ITLS:
These authoritative sources emphasize the cyclical nature of assessment, always starting with a repeat of the primary survey to identify any changes in the patient's critical systems.
Standard Order of Operations:
The sequence of patient assessment is defined as: Scene Size-Up -> Primary Survey -> Secondary Assessment -> Reassessment (which begins with the Primary Survey). This is a fundamental algorithm in EMT education.
A 30-year-old patient has a stab wound to the left forearm that is bleeding profusely. Which of the following interventions should the EMT perform first?
A. Assess the airway
B. Place a tourniquet
C. Apply direct pressure
D. Determine severity of wound
Explanation
Severe external bleeding:
In trauma, massive hemorrhage (M) is treated before airway (A) in the MARCH/Stop the Bleed approach because uncontrolled bleeding can cause death within minutes.
First-line intervention = direct pressure with a gloved hand and dressing.
Airway assessment (A):
Always critical, but in this case the immediate life threat is the profuse extremity hemorrhage. Airway assessment comes after bleeding is controlled.
So A is not first.
Tourniquet (B):
Tourniquets are indicated if direct pressure fails to control bleeding, or if bleeding is so severe/traumatic that direct pressure is clearly ineffective.
Best practice: try direct pressure first, escalate to tourniquet if necessary.
So B is not first.
Determine severity of wound (D):
You don’t “pause to assess” in front of massive external bleeding. The assessment is ongoing while applying pressure.
Delaying control to examine = inappropriate.
So D is not correct.
References:
AAOS, Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured, 12th Ed., Trauma Chapter — “Direct pressure is the primary method of controlling external bleeding.”
National EMS Education Standards (Trauma / Hemorrhage Control).
Stop the Bleed / TCCC Guidelines (2021 update) — sequence = direct pressure → tourniquet if uncontrolled.
Summary
For a patient with profuse extremity bleeding, the EMT should immediately apply direct pressure. Tourniquet use follows if direct pressure is ineffective. Airway and wound assessment come after bleeding control.
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