Defending systems

Providing command and control and situational awareness

Protecting information

Explanation: The various objectives of the DoD 8500 series are as follows: Protecting information Defending systems Providing command and control and situational awareness Making sure that the information assurance is integrated into processes Increasing security awareness throughout the DoD's workforce

It establishes the users' identity and ensures that the users are who they say they are.

Explanation: The concept of authentication establishes the users' identity and ensures that the users are who they say they are. Answer: B is incorrect. The concept of availability ensures the reliable and timely access to data or resources. Answer: D is incorrect. The concept of integrity ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes. Answer: C is incorrect. The concept of accountability determines the actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system, and identifies that particular individual.

Integrity 

Explanation: Integrity ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data. Answer: D is incorrect. Confidentiality refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access. Administrators can provide confidentiality by encrypting data. Answer: A is incorrect. Non-repudiation is a mechanism to prove that the sender really sent this message. Answer: C is incorrect. Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a person or network host. 

System Definition 

Validation 

Verification 

Re-Accreditation

Explanation: The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk. DIACAP replaced the former process, known as DITSCAP (Department of Defense Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process), in 2006. DoD Instruction (DoDI) 8510.01 establishes a standard DoD-wide process with a set of activities, general tasks, and a management structure to certify and accredit an Automated Information System (AIS) that will maintain the Information Assurance (IA) posture of the Defense Information Infrastructure (DII) throughout the system's life cycle. DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. It identifies four phases: 1.System Definition 2.Verification 3.Validation 4.Re-Accreditation 

Port scanning

Explanation: Port scanning identifies open doors to a computer. Hackers and crackers use this technique to obtain unauthorized information. Port scanning is the first basic step to get the details of open ports on the target system. Port scanning is used to find a hackable server with a hole or vulnerability. A port is a medium of communication between two computers. Every service on a host is identified by a unique 16-bit number called a port. A port scanner is a piece of software designed to search a network host for open ports. This is often used by administrators to check the security of their networks and by hackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromising it. Port scanning is used to find the open ports, so that it is possible to search exploits related to that service and application. Answer: D is incorrect. Phreaking is a process used to crack the phone system. The main aim of phreaking is to avoid paying for long- distance calls. As telephone networks have become computerized, phreaking has become closely linked with computer hacking. This is sometimes called the H/P culture (with H standing for Hacking and P standing for Phreaking). Answer: A is incorrect. It is defined as a system using a physical attribute for authenticating. Only authorized users are provided access to network or application. Answer: B is incorrect. It is described as a form of eavesdropping in which special equipments are used to pick up the telecommunication signals or data within a computer device.

Business continuity plan development

Explanation: The business continuity plan development refers to the utilization of the information collected in the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) for the creation of the recovery strategy plan to support the critical business functions. The information gathered from the BIA is mapped out to make a strategy for creating a continuity plan. The business continuity plan development process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance. This phase also consists of defining and documenting the continuity strategy. Answer: C is incorrect. The scope and plan initiation process in BCP symbolizes the beginning of the BCP process. It emphasizes on creating the scope and the additional elements required to define the parameters of the plan. The scope and plan initiation phase embodies a check of the company's operations and support services. The scope activities include creating a detailed account of the work required, listing the resources to be used, and defining the management practices to be employed. Answer: B is incorrect. The business impact assessment is a method used to facilitate business units to understand the impact of a disruptive event. This phase includes the execution of a vulnerability assessment. This process makes out the mission-critical areas and business processes that are important for the survival of business. It is similar to the risk assessment process. The function of a business impact assessment process is to create a document, which is used to help and understand what impact a disruptive event would have on the business. Answer: D is incorrect. The plan approval and implementation process involves creating enterprise-wide awareness of the plan, getting the final senior management signoff, and implementing a maintenance procedure for updating the plan as required. 

Identifying the risk  

Assessing the impact of potential threats

Finding an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the countermeasure

Explanation: There are three goals of risk management as follows: Identifying the risk Assessing the impact of potential threats Finding an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the countermeasure Answer: C is incorrect. Identifying the accused does not come under the scope of risk management. 

Software testing 

Explanation: In order to accomplish the task, you should use the software testing technique. By using this technique you can determine compatibility of systems with custom applications or you can identify other unforeseen interactions. You can also use the software testing technique while you are upgrading software. Answer: B is incorrect. You can use the antivirus management to save the systems from viruses, unexpected software interactions, and the subversion of security controls. Answer: A is incorrect. You can use the safe software storage technique to ensure that the software and backup copies have not been modified without authorization. Answer: C is incorrect. You can use the backup control to perform back up of software and data. 

Cold site 

Explanation: A cold site provides an office space, and in some cases basic equipment. However, you will need to restore your data to that equipment in order to use it. This is a much less expensive solution than the hot site. Answer: D is incorrect. A hot site has equipment installed, configured and ready to use. This may make disaster recovery much faster, but will also be more expensive. And a school district can afford to be down for several hours before resuming IT operations, so the less expensive option is more appropriate. Answer: C is incorrect. A warm site is between a hot and cold site. It has some equipment ready and connectivity ready. However, it is still significantly more expensive than a cold site, and not necessary for this scenario. Answer: B is incorrect. Off site is not any type of backup site terminology. 

TCSEC 

Explanation: Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) is a United States Government Department of Defense (DoD) standard that sets basic requirements for assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system. TCSEC was used to evaluate, classify, and select computer systems being considered for the processing, storage, and retrieval of sensitive or classified information. It was replaced with the development of the Common Criteria international standard originally published in 2005. The TCSEC, frequently referred to as the Orange Book, is the centerpiece of the DoD Rainbow Series publications. Answer: D is incorrect. System Security Authorization Agreement (SSAA) is an information security document used in the United States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems. The SSAA is part of the Department of Defense Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process, or DITSCAP (superseded by DIACAP). The DoD instruction (issues in December 1997, that describes DITSCAP and provides an outline for the SSAA document is DODI 5200.40. The DITSCAP application manual (DoD 8510.1- M), published in July 2000, provides additional details. Answer: A is incorrect. FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. It provides an approach for federal agencies. It determines how federal agencies are meeting existing policy and establish goals. The main advantage of FITSAF is that it addresses the requirements of Office of Management and Budget (OMB). It also addresses the guidelines provided by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIsT). Answer: B is incorrect. The Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS) are publicly announced standards developed by the United States federal government for use by all non-military government agencies and by government contractors. Many FIPS standards are modified versions of standards used in the wider community (ANSI, IEEE, ISO, etc.). Some FIPS standards were originally developed by the U.S. government. For instance, standards for encoding data (e.g., country codes), but more significantly some encryption standards, such as the Data Encryption Standard (FIPS 46-3) and the Advanced Encryption Standard (FIPS 197). In 1994, NOAA (Noaa) began broadcasting coded signals called FIPS (Federal Information Processing System) codes along with their standard weather broadcasts from local stations. These codes identify the type of emergency and the specific geographic area (such as a county) affected by the emergency. 

Tier 3  

Explanation: The information system level is the tier 3. It addresses risks from an information system perspective, and is guided by the risk decisions at tiers 1 and 2. Risk decisions at tiers 1 and 2 impact the ultimate selection and deployment of requisite safeguards. This also has an impact on the countermeasures at the information system level. The RMF primarily operates at tier3 but it can also have interactions at tiers 1 and 2. Answer: A is incorrect. It is an invalid Tier description. Answer: D is incorrect. The Organization Level is the Tier 1, and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. Answer: C is incorrect. The mission and business process level is the Tier 2, and it addresses risks from the mission and business process perspective. 

Access matrix 

Explanation: The access matrix or access control matrix is an abstract, formal security model of protection state in computer systems that characterizes the rights of each subject with respect to every object in the system. It was first introduced by Butler W. Lampson in 1971. According to the access matrix model, the protection state of a computer system can be abstracted as a set of objects 'O', that is the set of entities that needs to be protected (e.g. processes, files, memory pages) and a set of subjects 'S' that consists of all active entities (e.g. users, processes). Further there exists a set of rights 'R' of the form r(s,o), where s S, o O and r(s,o) R. A right thereby specifies the kind of access a subject is allowed to process with regard to an object. Answer: B is incorrect. The Bell-La Padula Model is a state machine model used for enforcing access control in government and military applications. The model is a formal state transition model of computer security policy that describes a set of access control rules which use security labels on objects and clearances for subjects. Security labels range from the most sensitive (e.g.,"Top Secret"), down to the least sensitive (e.g., "Unclassified" or "Public"). The Bell-La Padula model focuses on data confidentiality and controlled access to classified information, in contrast to the Biba Integrity Model which describes rules for the protection of data integrity. Answer: A is incorrect. The Clark-Wilson model provides a foundation for specifying and analyzing an integrity policy for a computing system. The model is primarily concerned with formalizing the notion of information integrity. Information integrity is maintained by preventing corruption of data items in a system due to either error or malicious intent. The model's enforcement and certification rules define data items and processes that provide the basis for an integrity policy. The core of the model is based on the notion of a transaction. Answer: C is incorrect. The Biba model is a formal state transition system of computer security policy that describes a set of access control rules designed to ensure data integrity. Data and subjects are grouped into ordered levels of integrity. The model is designed so that subjects may not corrupt data in a level ranked higher than the subject, or be corrupted by data from a lower level than the subject.