CSSLP Practice Test Questions

348 Questions


Topic 1: Volume A

You are the project manager for GHY Project and are working to create a risk response for a negative risk. You and the project team have identified the risk that the project may not complete on time, as required by the management, due to the creation of the user guide for the software you're creating. You have elected to hire an external writer in order to satisfy the requirements and to alleviate the risk event. What type of risk response have you elected to use in this instance?


A.

Transference 


B.

Exploiting 


C.

Avoidance 


D.

Sharing 





A.
  

Transference 



Explanation: This is an example of transference as you have transferred the risk to a third party. Transference almost always is done with a negative risk event and it usually requires a contractual relationship.

Della work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. A threat with a dollar value of $250,000 is expected to happen in her project and the frequency of threat occurrence per year is 0.01. What will be the annualized loss expectancy in her project? 


A.

$2,000


B.

$2,500 


C.

$3,510 


D.

$3,500





B.
  

$2,500 



Explanation: The annualized loss expectancy in her project will be $2,500. Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the annually expected financial loss to an organization from a threat. The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as follows: ALE = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Here, it is as follows:  

ALE = SLE * ARO  

= 250,000 * 0.01  

= 2,500  

Answer: D, C, and A are incorrect. These are not valid answers. 

FIPS 199 defines the three levels of potential impact on organizations. Which of the following potential impact levels shows limited adverse effects on organizational operations, organizational assets, or individuals?


A.

Moderate 


B.

Low 


C.

Medium 


D.

High 





B.
  

Low 



Explanation: The potential impact is called low if the loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability is expected to have a limited adverse effect on organizational operations, organizational assets, or individuals. Answer: C is incorrect. Such a type of potential impact level does not exist Answer: A is incorrect. The potential impact is known to be moderate if the loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability is expected to have a serious adverse effect on organizational operations, organizational assets, or individuals. Answer: D is incorrect. The potential impact is called high if the loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability is expected to have a severe or catastrophic adverse effect on organizational operations, organizational assets, or individuals. 

You work as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following documents will you use as a guide for the security certification and accreditation of Federal Information Systems?


A.

NIST Special Publication 800-60 


B.

NIST Special Publication 800-53


C.

NIST Special Publication 800-37


D.

NIST Special Publication 800-59





C.
  

NIST Special Publication 800-37



Explanation: NIST has developed a suite of documents for conducting Certification & Accreditation (C&A). These documents are as follows: NIST Special Publication 800-37: This document is a guide for the security certification and accreditation of Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53: This document provides a guideline for security controls for Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53A. This document consists of techniques and procedures for verifying the effectiveness of security controls in Federal Information System. NIST Special Publication 800-59: This document is a guideline for identifying an information system as a National Security System. NIST Special Publication 800-60: This document is a guide for mapping types of information and information systems to security objectives and risk levels.

There are seven risks responses that a project manager can choose from. Which risk response is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events? 


A.

Acceptance 


B.

Transference 


C.

Sharing 


D.

Mitigation 





A.
  

Acceptance 



Explanation: Only acceptance is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events. Often sharing is used for low probability and low impact risk events regardless of the positive or negative effects the risk event may bring the project. Acceptance response is a part of Risk Response planning process. Acceptance response delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance response can be of two types: Passive acceptance: It is a strategy in which no plans are made to try or avoid or mitigate the risk. Active acceptance: Such responses include developing contingency reserves to deal with risks, in case they occur. Acceptance is the only response for both threats and opportunities. Answer: C is incorrect. Sharing is a positive risk response that shares an opportunity for all parties involved in the risk event. Answer: B is incorrect. Transference is a negative risk event that transfers the risk ownership to a third party, such as vendor, through a contractual relationship. Answer: D is incorrect. Mitigation is a negative risk event that seeks to lower the probability and/or impact of a risk event.

What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.


A.

Initiate IA implementation plan 


B.

Develop DIACAP strategy


C.

Assign IA controls.


D.

Assemble DIACAP team 


E.

Register system with DoD Component IA Program.


F.

Conduct validation activity.





A.
  

Initiate IA implementation plan 



B.
  

Develop DIACAP strategy



C.
  

Assign IA controls.



D.
  

Assemble DIACAP team 



E.
  

Register system with DoD Component IA Program.



Explanation: The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk. The subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase are as follows: Register system with DoD Component IA Program. Assign IA controls. Assemble DIACAP team. Develop DIACAP strategy. Initiate IA implementation plan. Answer: F is incorrect. Validation activities are conducted in the second phase of the DIACAP process, i.e., Implement and Validate Assigned IA Controls. 

In which of the following processes are experienced personnel and software tools used to investigate, resolve, and handle process deviation, malformed data, infrastructure, or connectivity issues? 


A.

Risk Management


B.

Exception management


C.

Configuration Management 


D.

Change Management 





B.
  

Exception management



Explanation:  Exception management is a process in which experienced personnel and software tools are used to investigate, resolve, and handle process deviation, malformed data, infrastructure or connectivity issues. It increases the efficiency of business processes and contributes in the progress of business. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration Management (CM) is an Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) IT Service Management (ITSM) process. It tracks all of the individual Configuration Items (CI) in an IT system, which may be as simple as a single server, or as complex as the entire IT department. In large organizations a configuration manager may be appointed to oversee and manage the CM process. Answer: A is incorrect. Risk Management is used to identify, assess, and control risks. It includes analyzing the value of assets to the business, identifying threats to those assets, and evaluating how vulnerable each asset is to those threats. Risk Management is part of Service Design and the owner of the Risk Management is the Risk Manager. Risks are addressed within several processes in ITIL V3; however, there is no dedicated Risk Management process. ITIL V3 calls for "coordinated risk assessment exercises", so at IT Process Maps we decided to assign clear responsibilities for managing risks. Answer: D is incorrect. Change Management is used to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient handling of all changes. A change is "an event that results in a new status of one or more configuration items (CI's)" approved by management, cost effective, enhances business process changes (fixes) - with a minimum risk to IT infrastructure. The main aims of Change Management are as follows: Minimal disruption of services Reduction in back-out activities Economic utilization of resources involved in the change 

Which of the following is a variant with regard to Configuration Management? 


A.

A CI that has the same name as another CI but shares no relationship. 


B.

A CI that particularly refers to a software version. 


C.

A CI that has the same essential functionality as another CI but a bit different in some small manner. 


D.

A CI that particularly refers to a hardware specification.





C.
  

A CI that has the same essential functionality as another CI but a bit different in some small manner. 



Explanation: A CI that has the same essential functionality as another CI but a bit different in some small manner, and therefore, might be required to be analyzed along with its generic group. A Configuration item (CI) is an IT asset or a combination of IT assets that may depend and have relationships with other IT processes. A CI will have attributes which may be hierarchical and relationships that will be assigned by the configuration manager in the CM database. The Configuration Item (CI) attributes are as follows: 1.Technical: It is data that describes the CI's capabilities which include software version and model numbers, hardware and manufacturer specifications, and other technical details like networking speeds, and data storage size. Keyboards, mice and cables are considered consumables. 2.Ownership: It is part of financial asset management, ownership attributes, warranty, location, and responsible person for the CI. 3.Relationship: It is the relationship among hardware items, software, and users. Answer: B, D, and A are incorrect. These are incorrect definitions of a variant with regard to Configuration Management. 

Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?


A.

Data owner


B.

Chief Risk Officer


C.

Chief Information Officer 


D.

Designated Approving Authority





D.
  

Designated Approving Authority



Explanation: Designated Approving Authority (DAA) is also known as the accreditor. Answer: A is incorrect. The data owner (information owner) is usually a member of management, in charge of a specific business unit, and is ultimately responsible for the protection and use of a specific subset of information. Answer: B is incorrect. A Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is also known as Chief Risk Management Officer (CRMO). The Chief Risk Officer or Chief Risk Management Officer of a corporation is the executive accountable for enabling the efficient and effective governance of significant risks, and related opportunities, to a business and its various segments. Risks are commonly categorized as strategic, reputational, operational, financial, or compliance-related. CRO's are accountable to the Executive Committee and The Board for enabling the business to balance risk and reward. In more complex organizations, they are generally responsible for coordinating the organization's Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) approach. Answer: C is incorrect. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise responsible for the information technology and computer systems that support enterprise goals. The CIO plays the role of a leader and reports to the chief executive officer, chief operations officer, or chief financial officer. In military organizations, they report to the commanding officer. 

Which of the following is designed to detect unwanted attempts at accessing, manipulating, and disabling of computer systems through the Internet? 


A.

DAS 


B.

IPsec 


C.

IDS 


D.

ACL 





C.
  

IDS 



Explanation: An Intrusion detection system (IDS) is software and/or hardware designed to detect unwanted attempts at accessing, manipulating, and/or disabling of computer systems, mainly through a network, such as the Internet. These attempts may take the form of attacks, as examples, by crackers, malware and/or disgruntled employees. An IDS cannot directly detect attacks within properly encrypted traffic. An intrusion detection system is used to detect several types of malicious behaviors that can compromise the security and trust of a computer system. This includes network attacks against vulnerable services, data driven attacks on applications, host based attacks such as privilege escalation, unauthorized logins and access to sensitive files, and malware (viruses, trojan horses, and worms). Answer: D is incorrect. Access Control List (ACL) is the most commonly used object in Cisco IOS. It filters packets or network traffic by controlling whether routed packets are forwarded or blocked at the router's interfaces. According to the criteria specified within the access lists, router determines whether the packets to be forwarded or dropped. Access control list criteria could be the source or destination address of the traffic or other information. The types of Cisco ACLs are Standard IP, Extended IP, IPX, Appletalk, etc. Answer: B is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a method of securing data. It secures traffic by using encryption and digital signing. It enhances the security of data as if an IPSec packet is captured, its contents cannot be read. IPSec also provides sender verification that ensures the certainty of the datagram's origin to the receiver. Answer: A is incorrect. Direct-attached storage (DAS) is a digital storage system that is directly attached to a server or workstation, without using a storage network.

You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You with your team are using a method or a (technical) process that conceives the risks even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied. One of your team member wants to know that what is a residual risk. What will you reply to your team member?


A.

It is a risk that remains because no risk response is taken.


B.

It is a risk that can not be addressed by a risk response.


C.

It is a risk that will remain no matter what type of risk response is offered.


D.

It is a risk that remains after planned risk responses are taken. 





D.
  

It is a risk that remains after planned risk responses are taken. 



Explanation: Residual risks are generally smaller risks that remain in the project after larger risks have been addressed. The residual risk is the risk or danger of an action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that still conceives these dangers even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied. The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). Answer: B is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks. Answer: C is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks. Answer: A is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks.

Which of the following are examples of the application programming interface (API)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.


A.

HTML 


B.

PHP 


C.

.NET


D.

Perl 





B.
  

PHP 



C.
  

.NET



D.
  

Perl 



Explanation: Perl, .NET, and PHP are examples of the application programming interface (API). API is a set of routines, protocols, and tools that users can use to work with a component, application, or operating system. It consists of one or more DLLs that provide specific functionality. API helps in reducing the development time of applications by reducing application code. Most operating environments, such as MS-Windows, provide an API so that programmers can write applications consistent with the operating environment. Answer: A is incorrect. HTML stands for Hypertext Markup Language. It is a set of markup symbols or codes used to create Web pages and define formatting specifications. The markup tells the Web browser how to display the content of the Web page. 


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