Topic 3: Volume C
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A.
Discretionary Access Control
B.
Mandatory Access Control
C.
Policy Access Control
D.
Role-Based Access Control
Role-Based Access Control
Explanation: Role-based access control (RBAC) is an access control model. In this model, a user can access resources according to his role in the organization. For example, a backup administrator is responsible for taking backups of important data. Therefore, he is only authorized to access this data for backing it up. However, sometimes users with different roles need to access the same resources. This situation can also be handled using the RBAC model. Answer: B is incorrect. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is a model that uses a predefined set of access privileges for an object of the system. Access to an object is restricted on the basis of the sensitivity of the object and granted through authorization. Sensitivity of an object is defined by the label assigned to it. For example, if a user receives a copy of an object that is marked as "secret", he cannot grant permission to other users to see this object unless they have the appropriate permission. Answer: A is incorrect. DAC is an access control model. In this model, the data owner has the right to decide who can access the data. This model is commonly used in PC environment. The basis of this model is the use of Access Control List (ACL). Answer: C is incorrect. There is no such access control model as Policy Access Control.
What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group?
A.
Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B.
Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C.
Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
D.
Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
Explanation: Software Assurance Acquisition process defines the level of confidence that software is free from vulnerabilities. It is designed into the software or accidentally inserted at anytime during its lifecycle, and the software works in a planned manner. According to the U.S. Department of Defense and Department of Homeland Security Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group, the Software Assurance Acquisition process contains the following phases: 1.Planning 2.Contracting 3.Monitoring and acceptance 4.Follow-on
Drag and drop the various SSE-CMM levels at the appropriate places.
At which of the following levels of robustness in DRM must the security functions be immune to widely available tools and specialized tools and resistant to professional tools?
A.
Level 2
B.
Level 4
C.
Level 1
D.
Level 3
Level 1
Explanation: At Level 1 of robustness in DRM, the security functions must be immune to widely available tools and specialized tools and resistant to professional tools.
Martha works as a Project Leader for BlueWell Inc. She and her team have developed accounting software. The software was performing well. Recently, the software has been modified. The users of this software are now complaining about the software not working properly. Which of the following actions will she take to test the software?
A.
Perform integration testing
B.
Perform regression testing
C.
Perform unit testing
D.
Perform acceptance testing
Perform regression testing
Explanation: Regression testing can be performed any time when a program needs to be modified either to add a feature or to fix an error. It is a process of repeating Unit testing and Integration testing whenever existing tests need to be performed again along with the new tests. Regression testing is performed to ensure that no existing errors reappear, and no new errors are introduced. Answer: D is incorrect. The acceptance testing is performed on the application before its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for which it was made. Answer: A is incorrect. Integration testing is a logical extension of unit testing. It is performed to identify the problems that occur when two or more units are combined into a component. During integration testing, a developer combines two units that have already been tested into a component, and tests the interface between the two units. Although integration testing can be performed in various ways, the following three approaches are generally used: The top-down approach The bottom-up approach The umbrella approach Answer: C is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit.
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He has successfully performed the following steps of the pre-attack phase to check the security of the We-are-secure network: Gathering information Determining the network range Identifying active systems Now, he wants to find the open ports and applications running on the network. Which of the following tools will he use to accomplish his task?
A.
ARIN
B.
APNIC
C.
RIPE
D.
SuperScan
SuperScan
In such a situation, John will use the SuperScan tool to find the open ports and applications
on the We-are-secure network. SuperScan is a TCP/UDP port scanner. It also works as a ping sweeper and hostname resolver. It can ping a given range of IP addresses and resolve the host name of the remote system. The features of SuperScan are as follows: It scans any port range from a built-in list or any given range. It performs ping scans and port scans using any IP range. It modifies the port list and port descriptions using the built in editor. It connects to any discovered open port using user-specified "helper" applications. It has the transmission speed control utility. Answer: C, A, and B are incorrect. RIPE, ARIN, and APNIC are the Regional Internet Registries (RIR) that manage, distribute, and register public IP addresses within their respective regions. These can be used as passive tools by an attacker to determine the network range.
Continuous Monitoring is the fourth phase of the security certification and accreditation process. What activities are performed in the Continuous Monitoring process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
Security accreditation decision
B.
Security control monitoring and impact analyses of changes to the information system
C.
Security accreditation documentation
D.
Configuration management and control
E.
Status reporting and documentation
Security control monitoring and impact analyses of changes to the information system
Configuration management and control
Status reporting and documentation
Explanation: Continuous Monitoring is the fourth phase of the security certification and accreditation process. The Continuous Monitoring process consists of the following three main activities: Configuration management and control Security control monitoring and impact analyses of changes to the information system Status reporting and documentation The objective of these tasks is to observe and evaluate the information system security controls during the system life cycle. These tasks determine whether the changes that have occurred will negatively impact the system security. Answer: A and C are incorrect. Security accreditation decision and security accreditation documentation are the two tasks of the security accreditation phase.
The Phase 2 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Verification. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. What are the process activities of this phase? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
Certification analysis
B.
Assessment of the Analysis Results
C.
Configuring refinement of the SSAA
D.
System development
E.
Registration
Certification analysis
Assessment of the Analysis Results
Configuring refinement of the SSAA
System development
Explanation: The Phase 2 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Verification. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. This phase takes place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system. This phase verifies security requirements during system development. The process activities of this phase are as follows: Configuring refinement of the SSAA System development Certification analysis Assessment of the Analysis Results Answer: E is incorrect. Registration is a Phase 1 activity.
Which of the following security issues does the Bell-La Padula model focus on?
A.
Authorization
B.
Confidentiality
C.
Integrity
D.
Authentication
Confidentiality
Explanation: The Bell-La Padula model is a state machine model used for enforcing access control in large organizations. It focuses on data confidentiality and access to classified information, in contrast to the Biba Integrity model, which describes rules for the protection of data integrity. In the Bell-La Padula model, the entities in an information system are divided into subjects and objects. The Bell-La Padula model is built on the concept of a state machine with a set of allowable states in a computer network system. The transition from one state to another state is defined by transition functions. The model defines two mandatory access control (MAC) rules and one discretionary access control (DAC) rule with three security properties: 1.The Simple Security Property: A subject at a given security level may not read an object at a higher security level (no read-up). 2.The *- property (star-property): A subject at a given security level must not write to any object at a lower security level (no write-down). The *-property is also known as the Confinement property. 3.The Discretionary Security Property: It uses an access matrix to specify the discretionary access control.
You work as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. According to you, which of the following DITSCAP/NIACAP model phases occurs at the initiation of the project, or at the initial C&A effort of a legacy system?
A.
Validation
B.
Definition
C.
Verification
D.
Post Accreditation
Definition
Explanation: The definition phase of the DITSCAP/NIACAP model takes place at the beginning of the project, or at the initial C&A effort of a legacy system. C&A consists of four phases in a DITSCAP assessment. These phases are the same as NIACAP phases. The order of these phases is as follows: 1.Definition: The definition phase is focused on understanding the IS business case, the mission, environment, and architecture. This phase determines the security requirements and level of effort necessary to achieve Certification & Accreditation (C&A). 2.Verification: The second phase confirms the evolving or modified system's compliance with the information. The verification phase ensures that the fully integrated system will be ready for certification testing. 3.Validation: The third phase confirms abidance of the fully integrated system with the security policy. This phase follows the requirements slated in the SSAA. The objective of the validation phase is to show the required evidence to support the DAA in accreditation process. 4.Post Accreditation: The Post Accreditation is the final phase of DITSCAP assessment and it starts after the system has been certified and accredited for operations. This phase ensures secure system management, operation, and maintenance to save an acceptable level of residual risk
What are the differences between managed and unmanaged code technologies? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A.
Managed code is referred to as Hex code, whereas unmanaged code is referred to as byte code.
B.
C and C++ are the examples of managed code, whereas Java EE and NET are the examples of unmanaged code.
C.
Managed code executes under management of a runtime environment, whereas unmanaged code is executed by the CPU of a computer system.
D.
Managed code executes under management of a runtime environment, whereas unmanaged code is executed by the CPU of a computer system.
Managed code executes under management of a runtime environment, whereas unmanaged code is executed by the CPU of a computer system.
Managed code executes under management of a runtime environment, whereas unmanaged code is executed by the CPU of a computer system.
Explanation: Programming languages are categorized into two technologies:
In which of the following levels of exception safety are operations succeeded with full guarantee and fulfill all needs in the presence of exceptional situations?
A.
Commit or rollback semantics
B.
Minimal exception safety
C.
Failure transparency
D.
Basic exception safety
Failure transparency
Explanation: Failure transparency is the best level of exception safety. In this level, operations are succeeded with full guarantee and fulfill all needs in the presence of exceptional situations. Failure transparency does not throw the exception further up even when an exception occurs. This level is also known as no throw guarantee.
Page 13 out of 29 Pages |
Previous |