Topic 2: Volume B
Which of the following security controls works as the totality of protection mechanisms within a computer system, including hardware, firmware, and software, the combination of which is responsible for enforcing a security policy?
A.
Common data security architecture (CDSA)
B.
Application program interface (API)
C.
Trusted computing base (TCB)
D.
Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
Trusted computing base (TCB)
Explanation: Trusted computing base (TCB) refers to hardware, software, controls, and processes that cause a computer system or network to be devoid of malicious software or hardware. Maintaining the trusted computing base (TCB) is essential for security policy to be implemented successfully. Answer: D is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security. IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the networking layer. It is used for VPN connections that use the L2TP protocol. It secures both data and password. IPSec cannot be used with Point-to- Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). Answer: A is incorrect. The Common data security architecture (CDSA) is a set of layered security services and cryptographic framework. It deals with the communications and data security problems in the emerging Internet and intranet application space. It presents an infrastructure for building cross-platform, interoperable, security-enabled applications for client-server environments. Answer: B is incorrect. An application programming interface (API) is an interface implemented by a software program which enables it to interact with other software. It facilitates interaction between different software programs similar to the way the user interface facilitates interaction between humans and computers. An API is implemented by applications, libraries, and operating systems to determine their vocabularies and calling conventions, and is used to access their services. It may include specifications for routines, data structures, object classes, and protocols used to communicate between the consumer and the implementer of the API.
Which of the following processes identifies the threats that can impact the business continuity of operations?
A.
Function analysis
B.
Risk analysis
C.
Business impact analysis
D.
Requirement analysis
Business impact analysis
Explanation: A business impact analysis (BIA) is a crisis management and business impact analysis technique that identifies those threats that can impact the business continuity of operations. Such threats can be either natural or man-made. The BIA team should have a clear understanding of the organization, key business processes, and IT resources for assessing the risks associated with continuity. In the BIA team, there should be senior management, IT personnel, and end users to identify all resources that are to be used during normal operations. Answer: B is incorrect. Risk analysis is the science of risks and their probability and evaluation in a business or a process. It is an important factor in security enhancement and prevention in a system. Risk analysis should be performed as part of the risk management process for each project. The outcome of the risk analysis would be the creation or review of the risk register to identify and quantify risk elements to
the project and their potential impact. Answer: A is incorrect. The functional analysis process is used for converting system requirements into a comprehensive function standard. Verification is the result of the functional analysis process, in which the fundamentals of a system level functional architecture are defined adequately to allow for synthesis in the design phase. The functional analysis breaks down the higher-level functions into the lower level functions. Answer: D is incorrect. Requirements analysis encompasses the tasks that go into determining the needs or conditions to meet for a new or altered product, taking account of the possibly conflicting requirements of the various stakeholders.
Which of the following are the principle duties performed by the BIOS during POST (power- on-self-test)? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
It provides a user interface for system's configuration.
B.
It identifies, organizes, and selects boot devices.
C.
It delegates control to other BIOS, if it is required.
D.
It discovers size and verifies system memory.
E.
It verifies the integrity of the BIOS code itself.
F.
It interrupts the execution of all running programs.
It provides a user interface for system's configuration.
It identifies, organizes, and selects boot devices.
It delegates control to other BIOS, if it is required.
It discovers size and verifies system memory.
It verifies the integrity of the BIOS code itself.
Explanation: The principle duties performed by the BIOS during POST (power-on-self- test) are as follows: It verifies the integrity of the BIOS code itself. It discovers size and verifies system memory. It discovers, initializes, and catalogs all system hardware. It delegates control to other BIOS if it is required. It provides a user interface for system's configuration. It identifies, organizes, and selects boot devices. It executes the bootstrap program. Answer: F is incorrect. The BIOS does not interrupt the execution of all running programs.
Which of the following are the levels of public or commercial data classification system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
Sensitive
B.
Private
C.
Unclassified
D.
Confidential
E.
Secret
F.
Public
Sensitive
Private
Confidential
Public
Explanation: The public or commercial data classification is also built upon a four-level model, which are as follows: Public Sensitive Private Confidential Each level (top to bottom) represents an increasing level of sensitivity. The public level is similar to unclassified level military classification system. This level of data should not cause any damage if disclosed. Sensitive is a higher level of classification than public level data. This level of data requires a greater level of protection to maintain confidentiality. The Private level of data is intended for company use only. Disclosure of this level of data can damage the company. The Confidential level of data is considered very sensitive and is intended for internal use only. Disclosure of this level of data can cause serious damage to the company. Answer: C and E are incorrect. Unclassified and secret are the levels of military data classification.
Which of the following security controls will you use for the deployment phase of the SDLC to build secure software? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
Change and Configuration Control
B.
Security Certification and Accreditation (C&A)
C.
Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing
D.
Risk Adjustments
Security Certification and Accreditation (C&A)
Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing
Risk Adjustments
Explanation: The various security controls in the SDLC deployment phase are as follows: Secure Installation: While performing any software installation, it should kept in mind that the security configuration of the environment should never be reduced. If it is reduced then security issues and overall risks can affect the environment. Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing: Vulnerability assessments (VA) and penetration testing (PT) is used to determine the risk and attest to the strength of the software after it has been deployed. Security Certification and Accreditation (C&A): Security certification is the process used to ensure controls which are effectively implemented through established verification techniques and procedures, giving organization officials confidence that the appropriate safeguards and countermeasures are in place as means of protection. Accreditation is the provisioning of the necessary security authorization by a senior organization official to process, store, or transmit information. Risk Adjustments: Contingency plans and exceptions should be generated so that the residual risk be above the acceptable threshold.
Which of the following is the most secure method of authentication?
A.
Biometrics
B.
Username and password
C.
Anonymous
D.
Smart card
Biometrics
Explanation: Biometrics is a method of authentication that uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to identify a user. Nowadays, the usage of biometric devices such as hand scanners and retinal scanners is becoming more common in the business environment. It is the most secure method of authentication. Answer: B is incorrect. Username and password is the least secure method of authentication in comparison of smart card and biometrics authentication. Username and password can be intercepted. Answer: D is incorrect. Smart card authentication is not as reliable as biometrics authentication. Answer: C is incorrect. Anonymous authentication does not provide security as a user can log on to the system anonymously and he is not prompted for credentials.
Which of the following is an open source network intrusion detection system?
A.
NETSH
B.
Macof
C.
Sourcefire
D.
Snort
Snort
Explanation: Snort is an open source network intrusion prevention and detection system that operates as a network sniffer. It logs activities of the network that is matched with the predefined signatures. Signatures can be designed for a wide range of traffic, including Internet Protocol (IP), Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). The three main modes in which Snort can be configured are as follows:
Sniffer mode: It reads the packets of the network and displays them in a continuous stream on the console. Packet logger mode: It logs the packets to the disk. Network intrusion detection mode: It is the most complex and configurable configuration, allowing Snort to analyze network traffic for matches against a user-defined rule set. Answer: B is incorrect. Macof is a tool of the dsniff tool set and used to flood the local network with random MAC addresses. It causes some switches to fail open in repeating mode, and facilitates sniffing. Answer: C is incorrect. Sourcefire is the company that owns and maintains Snort. Answer: A is incorrect. NETSH is not a network intrusion detection system. NETSH is a command line tool to configure TCP/IP settings such as the IP address, Subnet Mask, Default Gateway, DNS, WINS addresses, etc.
Which of the following statements reflect the 'Code of Ethics Canons' in the '(ISC)2 Code of Ethics'? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally.
B.
Give guidance for resolving good versus good and bad versus bad dilemmas.
C.
Provide diligent and competent service to principals.
D.
Protect society, the commonwealth, and the infrastructure.
Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally.
Provide diligent and competent service to principals.
Protect society, the commonwealth, and the infrastructure.
Explanation: The Code of Ethics Canons in (ISC)2 code of ethics are as follows: Protect society, the commonwealth, and the infrastructure. Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally. Provide diligent and competent service to principals. Advance and protect the profession.
Digital rights management (DRM) consists of compliance and robustness rules. Which of the following features does the robustness rule have? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A.
It specifies the various levels of robustness that are needed for asset security.
B.
It specifies minimum techniques for asset security.
C.
It specifies the behaviors of the DRM implementation and applications accessing the implementation.
D.
It contains assets, such as device key, content key, algorithm, and profiling data.
It specifies the various levels of robustness that are needed for asset security.
It specifies minimum techniques for asset security.
It contains assets, such as device key, content key, algorithm, and profiling data.
Explanation: The DRM (digital rights management) technology includes the following rules: 1.Compliance rule: This rule specifies the behaviors of the DRM implementation, and applications that are accessing the implementation. The compliance rule specifies the following elements: Definition of specific license rights Device requirements Revocation of license path or penalties when the implementation is not robust enough or noncompliant 2.Robustness rule: This rule has the following features: It specifies the various levels of robustness that are needed for asset security. It contains assets, such as device key, content key, algorithm, and profiling data. It specifies minimum techniques for asset security.
Which of the following plans is documented and organized for emergency response, backup operations, and recovery maintained by an activity as part of its security program that will ensure the availability of critical resources and facilitates the continuity of operations in an emergency situation?
A.
Continuity Of Operations Plan
B.
Business Continuity Plan
C.
Contingency Plan
D.
Disaster Recovery Plan
Contingency Plan
Explanation: Contingency plan is prepared and documented for emergency response, backup operations, and recovery maintained by an activity as the element of its security program that will ensure the availability of critical resources and facilitates the continuity of operations in an emergency situation. A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen.
Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and "triggers" for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption.
Answer: D is incorrect. A disaster recovery plan should contain data, hardware, and software that can be critical for a business. It should also include the plan for sudden loss such as hard disc crash. The business should use backup and data recovery utilities to limit the loss of data. Answer: A is incorrect. The Continuity Of Operation Plan (COOP) refers to the preparations and institutions maintained by the United States government, providing survival of federal government operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization's essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where normal operations are unattainable. Answer: B is incorrect. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan.
Which of the following techniques is used to identify attacks originating from a botnet?
A.
Passive OS fingerprinting
B.
Recipient filtering
C.
IFilter
D.
BPF-based filter
Passive OS fingerprinting
Explanation: Passive OS fingerprinting can identify attacks originating from a botnet. Network Administrators can configure the firewall to take action on a botnet attack by using information obtained from passive OS fingerprinting. Passive OS fingerprinting (POSFP) allows the sensor to determine the operating system used by the hosts. The sensor examines the traffic flow between two hosts and then stores the operating system of those two hosts along with their IP addresses. In order to determine the type of operating system, the sensor analyzes TCP SYN and SYN ACK packets that are traveled on the network. The sensor computes the attack relevance rating to determine the relevancy of victim attack using the target host OS. After it, the sensor modifies the alert's risk rating or filters the alert for the attack. Passive OS fingerprinting is also used to improve the alert output by reporting some information, such as victim OS, relevancy to the victim in the alert, and source of the OS identification. Answer: D is incorrect. A BPF-based filter is used to limit the number of packets seen by tcpdump; this renders the output more usable on networks with a high volume of traffic. Answer: B is incorrect. Recipient filtering is used to block messages on the basis of whom they are sent to. Answer: C is incorrect. IFilters are used to extract contents from files that are crawled. IFilters also remove application-specific formatting before the content of a document is indexed by the search engine.
Which of the following are the initial steps required to perform a risk analysis process? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A.
Valuations of the critical assets in hard costs.
B.
Evaluate potential threats to the assets.
C.
Estimate the potential losses to assets by determining their value.
D.
Establish the threats likelihood and regularity.
Evaluate potential threats to the assets.
Estimate the potential losses to assets by determining their value.
Establish the threats likelihood and regularity.
Explanation: The main steps of performing risk analysis are as follows: Estimate the potential losses to the assets by determining their value. Evaluate the potential threats to the assets. Establish the threats probability and regularity. Answer: A is incorrect. Valuations of the critical assets in hard costs is one of the final steps taken after performing the risk analysis.
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