Microbiology
Matching: The detection of a distinct odor is often helpful in the presumptive identification of bacterial culture isolates. Match each of the odors listed with its corresponding bacterial species name.
1. Streptococcus anginosus (milleri)
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3. Eikenella corrodens
4. Alcaligenes faecalis

A. Pared apples

B. Grapes

C. Butterscotch

D. Bleach

Vitamin K is needed to produce certain coagulation factors, in particular factors II, VII, IX, and X. Deficiencies in these factors can lead to increased clotting times and can cause hemorrhagic disease. A deficiency in which of these vitamins leads to increased clotting time and may result in hemorrhagic disease?

A. Riboflavin

B. Pyridoxine

C. Tocopherols

D. Vitamin K

E. Vitamin C

What has happened in a titer, if tubes #5-7 show a stronger reaction than tubes #1-4?

A. poor technique

B. postzone reaction

C. prozone reaction

D. equivalence reaction technical error

Which of the following CD markers is NOT present on a normal mature T cell?

A. CD20

B. CD7

C. CD3

D. CD5

Elevation in conjugated bilirubin is most likely to be found in which of the following conditions:

A. Transfusion reactions

B. Erythroblastosis fetalis

C. Cirrhosis of the liver

D. Biliary obstruction

The negative antigen frequencies are used in the formula below to determine the percent of type-specific units that would be compatible for the patient. Negative antigen frequencies are determined by subtracting the percent antigen frequency from 100%. The negative antigen frequency for K in this case is .91 (1.00 - .09) and the negative antigen frequency for Fya is .34 (1.00 - .66).
% compatible units available = 100 x (Neg frequency #1 x Neg frequency #2...)
For this case, the calculation is:
% compatible units available = 100 x (0.91 x 0.34) = 30.94 or 31%
If the antigen frequencies for K = 0.09 and Fya = 0.66, what percent of type-specific units would be compatible for a patient with anti-K and anti-Fya?

A. 10

B. 43

C. 31

D. 92

E. 100

The two main areas of the clinical laboratory are:

A. cytology and histology.

B. chemistry and hematology.

C. urinalysis and microbiology.

D. anatomical and clinical.

The results of this PT and aPTT are in normal range. These results can be reported and are not indicative of the need to: order a mixing study or request a redraw.
You have just performed stat PT and aPTT tests on your coagulation instrument. Your results are as follows:
PT = 12 seconds (normal range 10-13 seconds)
aPTT = 24 seconds (normal range 21-34 seconds)
What would be your next step?

A. Perform a mixing study

B. Report the results

C. Request a redraw of the specimen

What is the best description of the purpose of the Commission on Office Laboratory Accreditation (COLA) pertaining to the clinical laboratory?

A. Administers both CLIA '88 and Medicare programs

B. Nonprofit educational group that establishes consensus standards for maintaining a high-quality laboratory organization

C. CMS has given COLA deemed status to act on the government's behalf to certify clinical laboratories

D. Sets accreditation requirements for physician office laboratories (POLs)

The FTA-ABS is used to confirm that a positive non-treponemal test like RPR is not the result of a biological false positive, which occur in about 1 to 10 percent of the population. A positive RPR test and a negative FTA-ABS test is most likely the result of:

A. Primary syphilis

B. Secondary syphilis

C. Latent syphilis

D. False positive reaction

The personal protective equipment (PPE) that is used in the laboratory to protect the personnel when performing tests on patient blood samples is which of the following:

A. Gloves

B. Coat or gown

C. Goggles and mask

D. A and B only

CD34, a cell surface marker, presents on undifferentiated pluripotential hemopoietic stem cells. CD34 is a cell surface glycoprotein and functions as a cell-cell adhesion factor.
Which one of the following antigen markers is BEST associated with stem cells?

A. CD3

B. CD10

C. CD18

D. CD34

E. CDC007