Summary:
A post-project review, also known as a post-implementation review, is conducted soon after the project has been delivered and its outputs handed over. Its focus is on evaluating the project's management processes, team performance, and immediate outcomes against the original plan. It is a retrospective look at the project's execution, not a forward-looking assessment of long-term value.

Correct Option:

A. Evaluation of the benefits of the project.
This is not typically part of the standard post-project review. Benefits realization is a longer-term process that occurs after the project's outputs have been in use for some time. A post-project review happens too soon to measure the actual business benefits, which is the purpose of a separate benefits review.

Incorrect Option:

B. Identification of the problems that arose and their likely causes.
This is a core part of the review. Analyzing what went wrong and why is essential for capturing lessons learned to improve future projects.

C. Review of the project's performance against the success criteria.
This is a fundamental purpose of the review. It assesses whether the project met its objectives for scope, time, cost, and quality as defined in the project management plan.

D. Review of how the team worked together to solve problems and issues.
This is a valuable part of the review. Evaluating team dynamics, collaboration, and problem-solving effectiveness provides lessons for team management on future projects.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 4.2 (Project Reviews). It distinguishes between different types of reviews. The post-project review focuses on "evaluating the project's performance and learning lessons," which aligns with options B, C, and D. Benefits management is covered separately in Section 3.13, confirming that benefits evaluation is a distinct activity.

Summary:
Before a project team begins work, it is crucial to have a fixed and agreed-upon set of project objectives and specifications. This reference point, once established, is used to measure all future progress and proposed changes. Communicating this baseline ensures all stakeholders have a common understanding of what the project has committed to deliver, forming the basis for control and accountability.

Correct Option:

B. Deployment baseline.
This is the correct answer. The deployment baseline (often synonymous with the project baseline) is the approved version of the project's scope, schedule, and cost. It is formally agreed upon and "frozen" at the end of the project definition phase, just before execution (deployment) begins, and is then communicated to stakeholders as the reference point for the work.

Incorrect Option:

A. Verified work breakdown structure.
The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a key component of the scope baseline, but it is only one part of it. The complete baseline also includes the schedule and cost baselines. Furthermore, "verified" is an internal check, not the formal agreement and communication to stakeholders.

C. Configuration record.
A configuration record is part of configuration management and tracks the state of project deliverables and documents. It is a detailed log, not the high-level, agreed reference point communicated to stakeholders before work starts.

D. Business case.
The business case justifies why the project should be undertaken. It is a key document for authorization but is not the detailed reference point for the work itself. The baseline is derived from the business case but provides the specific technical and managerial targets for execution.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.2 (Scope Management) and 3.8 (Change Control). The concept of a baseline is central to change control. The baseline is established and agreed upon before work starts and is used as the reference for measuring performance and assessing changes.

Summary:
A project is a specific type of work with distinct characteristics that differentiate it from ongoing business-as-usual operations. It is not defined by the tools used to manage it, but by its fundamental nature. The definition must capture its core attributes of being a one-time effort with a clear goal and a defined beginning and end.

Correct Option:

C. A unique transient endeavour undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.
This is the standard and most accurate definition. It includes the key characteristics:

Unique: It is a one-off set of activities, not a repetitive task.

Transient: It is temporary, with a defined start and end date.

Endeavour: It requires organized work and effort.

Desired Outcome: It is purpose-driven, aiming to achieve specific objectives.

Incorrect Option:

A. A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering organisational change.
This describes project management, not the project itself. The tools and techniques are how you manage the project; they are not the definition of what a project is.

B. A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique piece of work.
This is incorrect. Projects often create uncertainty and are undertaken in an environment of uncertainty. The purpose of project management is to manage this uncertainty, not to define the project by its removal.

D. A project is a method of planning work.
This is also a description of a management approach or technique, not the entity being managed. A project is the work itself, which requires planning.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 1.1 (What is a Project?). It provides the official definition: "A project is a unique, transient endeavour, undertaken to achieve planned objectives, which could be defined in terms of outputs, outcomes or benefits." This matches option C exactly.

Summary:
The "estimating funnel" describes the phenomenon where the accuracy of a project estimate improves over time. Early estimates have a wide range of uncertainty (the wide part of the funnel), but as the project progresses and more information becomes available, the estimate becomes more precise and the range of possible outcomes narrows (the narrow part of the funnel). This increased precision is driven by gaining a deeper understanding of the project.

Correct Option:

B. utilization of learning and experience.
This is the correct factor. As the project moves through its lifecycle, the team learns more about the requirements, constraints, and potential risks. This accumulated knowledge and experience allow for more detailed and accurate estimates, which narrows the uncertainty and creates the funnel effect.

Incorrect Option:

A. Project team getting to know each other better.
While team cohesion can improve efficiency, it is not the primary driver of estimating accuracy. The funnel effect is fundamentally about the availability of project information, not team dynamics.

C. Project scope increasing in cost.
This describes scope creep, which would typically make estimates less accurate and cause them to increase, working against the narrowing effect of the estimating funnel.

D. use of a linear life cycle.
The estimating funnel is a concept that applies to all project life cycles. While a linear (or predictive) life cycle has distinct planning phases where the estimate is refined, the funnel effect itself is created by the utilization of learning, not by the choice of life cycle model.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.5 (Estimating). It discusses how estimating accuracy improves as the project definition becomes clearer, which is a direct result of learning and gaining experience as the project progresses.

Summary:
Portfolio management is a strategic-level function focused on selecting and overseeing an organization's entire collection of projects and programmes. Its primary goal is to ensure that this portfolio is aligned with strategic objectives and delivers maximum value. The key activities involve making strategic choices about which initiatives to pursue and then monitoring their collective performance, rather than managing the delivery of individual projects.

Correct Option:

A. 1, 2 and 3 (selection, control, prioritisation).
This is the correct set. Portfolio management involves:

1) Selection: Choosing the right projects and programmes that align with the organization's strategy.

3) Prioritisation: Ranking these components to allocate finite resources (funds, people) to the most valuable initiatives.

2) Control: Monitoring the overall performance of the portfolio and making strategic adjustments to optimize value.

Incorrect Option:

B. 1, 2 and 4.
This is incorrect because it includes 4) transition. Transition is a phase within an individual project or programme lifecycle where outputs are handed over to operations. It is not a core activity of the strategic portfolio management function.

C. 2, 3 and 4.
This is incorrect because it includes 4) transition and excludes 1) selection. The selection of components is a fundamental activity that defines the portfolio.

D. 1, 3 and 4.
This is incorrect because it includes 4) transition. Managing the transition of individual deliverables is a project or programme-level activity, not a portfolio-level one.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 2.1 (Portfolio Management). It describes portfolio management as focusing on "the selection and prioritisation of programmes and projects" and "monitoring and controlling the portfolio," which directly corresponds to selection (1), prioritisation (3), and control (2).

Summary:
The project steering group or board is the primary governance body for a project. Its role is strategic, not operational. It is responsible for providing high-level direction, making key decisions that are beyond the project manager's authority, and ensuring the project remains aligned with business objectives. It does not involve itself in the day-to-day management of the project team.

Correct Option:

B. To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.
This is a key responsibility. While the board guides the project manager, it also provides strategic direction and support to the project sponsor, ensuring the project's business case remains valid and aligned with organizational strategy. The board acts as the ultimate decision-making authority for the project.

Incorrect Option:

A. To identify potential problems for the project team to solve.
This is the responsibility of the project manager and the project team. The board's role is to make decisions on major problems (issues) that are escalated to them, not to identify day-to-day problems.

C. To manage the project team in all daily activities.
This is the core responsibility of the project manager. The steering board governs the project; it does not manage the team's daily work.

D. To receive and consider daily reports from team members.
This is incorrect. The steering board receives periodic reports (e.g., highlight reports) from the project manager, not daily reports from individual team members. This would be inappropriate micro-management.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 2.5 (Project Management). It describes the project board's role in providing "direction and guidance" and being accountable for the project's success, which includes providing strategic oversight to both the project manager and the sponsor.

Summary:
A formal change control process is designed to handle requests efficiently without overburdening the project team with unnecessary analysis. The initial high-level review, often called a "screening" or "triage" step, serves as a filter. Its purpose is to quickly assess the change's merit and alignment with the project's objectives before committing significant time and resources to a detailed evaluation.

Correct Option:

A. To consider if the change is feasible to evaluate at this stage.
This is the main reason for the initial review. It asks fundamental questions like: Is the request complete? Does it align with project objectives? Is it a duplicate? Is it significant enough to warrant a full impact analysis? This step prevents the project team from wasting effort on changes that are irrelevant, invalid, or not viable.

Incorrect Option:

B. To establish who might be the best stakeholders to be involved in the change.
Identifying stakeholders is part of the detailed analysis that occurs after a change request has passed the initial screening and is deemed worthy of full evaluation.

C. To ensure that the change request is considered as soon as possible.
While the process should be timely, the initial review is not about speed for its own sake. It is a quality check to ensure only valid and worthwhile requests enter the formal evaluation pipeline.

D. To implement the necessary actions to ensure the change has a smooth implementation.
Implementation planning is one of the final steps in the change control process, occurring only after the change has been formally approved. It is not part of the initial review.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.8 (Change Control). It describes the change control process, which typically includes an initial step to log and screen a request before committing to a full impact analysis, confirming that feasibility of evaluation is a key initial consideration.

Summary:
Scheduling is a specific process within project planning that focuses on the time dimension. It involves analyzing the sequence of activities, their durations, dependencies, and resource constraints. The primary output of this process is a project schedule, which is a time-based plan showing when each activity should be performed and, crucially, the overall project completion date.

Correct Option:

A. overall project duration.
This is the best definition of the core purpose of scheduling. The scheduling process takes all defined project work and calculates the earliest and latest start and finish dates for activities, ultimately determining the total time required to complete the project and establishing the project's finish date.

Incorrect Option:

B. project cost estimating.
This is a separate process, covered by cost management. While the schedule influences cost (e.g., resource costs over time), the act of scheduling itself determines when work happens, not how much it costs.

C. the project management plan.
The project management plan is the overarching document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. The schedule is one component (a subsidiary plan) of the overall project management plan, not the output of the scheduling process itself.

D. sub-contractor's responsibilities.
Determining responsibilities is part of resource planning and procurement management, typically documented in a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) or contract. Scheduling determines when a sub-contractor's work will occur, not what their responsibilities are.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.6 (Scheduling). It defines scheduling as the "process of determining the overall project duration" and generating a timetable of activities, which directly confirms option A as the correct definition.

Summary:
The critical path is the longest sequence of dependent activities in a project, determining the minimum possible project duration. Any delay to a critical path activity directly delays the project's finish date. If these activities have insufficient resources, work will take longer than planned, causing the critical path to lengthen and the overall project duration to increase.

Correct Option:

B. It would extend the project duration.
This is the direct and primary effect. The critical path dictates the project timeline. If critical activities are starved of resources (e.g., people, equipment), their duration will increase. Since these activities have zero float, any increase in their duration directly translates to a day-for-day extension of the project's final completion date.

Incorrect Option:

A. It would reduce the project duration.
This is the opposite of what would happen. Insufficient resources cause delays, not acceleration.

C. The quality of the deliverables would suffe
While poor resource management can indirectly lead to quality issues due to rushed work or unskilled labor, this is not the direct or guaranteed effect of insufficient resources on the critical path. The most immediate and predictable impact is a schedule delay.

D. Resource smoothing should be applied to the critical path.
This is an incorrect statement of the technique. Resource smoothing is applied to activities with float (non-critical activities) to even out resource demand without affecting the project end date. You cannot smooth resources on the critical path without extending the project duration, which is the problem itself, not the solution.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.6 (Scheduling). It explains that the critical path determines the project's duration and that resource constraints can affect the schedule, leading to extensions.

Summary:
Accurate estimating relies on historical data and past experience to inform predictions for future projects. One of the most valuable sources of this data is the post-project review, where actual performance, costs, and durations are recorded and analyzed. This information provides a realistic baseline for creating more reliable estimates for similar work in the future.

Correct Option:

A. Post project reviews are a prime source of estimating data.
This is a true and fundamental principle of good estimating practice. Post-project reviews capture lessons learned, including actual costs, durations, and resource usage. This historical data is essential for improving the accuracy of future estimates, making it a prime source of information.

Incorrect Option:

B. An estimated cost for a project must be 10 per cent to be any use.
This is false. There is no universal mandatory accuracy level for an estimate to be "useful." The required accuracy depends on the project phase and the purpose of the estimate (e.g., a feasibility estimate will be less accurate than a detailed tender estimate).

C. If you cannot estimate task durations to within 20 per cent there is no point in developing a schedule.
This is false. Even with significant uncertainty, developing a schedule based on the best available estimates is valuable for planning, identifying dependencies, and understanding the critical path. The schedule is a management tool that is refined as more information becomes available.

D. The project manager should always add 10 cent to peoples duration estimates to allow for natural optimism.
This is a poor and arbitrary practice. While estimator optimism is a recognized bias (the "planning fallacy"), it should be managed through structured techniques like using three-point estimates (PERT), reference class forecasting, or applying a documented contingency reserve based on risk analysis, not by blindly adding a fixed percentage to every task.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.5 (Estimating). It emphasizes the importance of using historical data and lessons learned to inform estimates, which is precisely the data captured in post-project reviews.

Summary:
An audit is an independent, formal examination of a project. Its primary purpose is not to track day-to-day performance but to provide an objective assessment of the project's adherence to established standards, policies, and procedures. The goal is to offer assurance to the governing body that the project is being managed correctly and in compliance with the agreed-upon framework.

Correct Option:

C. Provide assurance to the sponsor that the project is being managed using the agreed governance and process.
This is the main objective of an audit. It is a compliance check that verifies whether the project's management activities (e.g., risk management, change control, reporting) align with organizational standards and the project's own defined processes, providing confidence in the integrity of the management approach.

Incorrect Option:

A. Provide assurance to the project sponsor that the project is going to finish on time and within budget.
This describes the purpose of progress reporting and performance monitoring (e.g., Earned Value Management), not an audit. An audit focuses on how the project is being managed, not on predicting its final outcome.

B. Provide feedback to the project manager with regard to their performance.
While an audit report may highlight areas for improvement, its objective is not to appraise the project manager's personal performance. It is focused on the project's processes and compliance.

D. Provide a report of the current status of the project regarding cost and schedule performance.
This is, again, the function of regular progress reporting by the project manager. An audit is a special, in-depth review of process compliance, not a status update.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 4.1 (Assurance). It defines assurance as the process of providing confidence to stakeholders that the project will meet its objectives, and that audits are a key assurance activity used to check compliance with processes and standards. This aligns directly with option C.

Summary:
In project management, a benefit is the measurable improvement that results from the outcome of a project and contributes to strategic objectives. It is the 'why' behind the project—the value or advantage that the sponsoring organization will gain from using the project's outputs. Benefits are realized after the project is complete and the deliverables are in operation.

Correct Option:

C. An improvement resulting from project deliverables.
This is the most accurate definition. A benefit is the positive change, value, or advantage that an organization gains from the outcomes of a project. It is directly linked to the use of the project's deliverables and is the primary justification for the project's investment.

Incorrect Option:

A. A positive result of stakeholder management.
While effective stakeholder management can lead to a more successful project, it is an enabler, not the benefit itself. Benefits are strategic improvements for the business, not the positive outcomes of management processes.

B. The successful management of a project.
This describes project success in terms of meeting its constraints (time, cost, quality), which is different from delivering the business benefits that the project was initiated to achieve.

D. The successful delivery of project reports and updates.
This is an administrative task and a project activity. It is a means of communication and control, not a business improvement or a benefit.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.13 (Benefits Management). It defines a benefit as "a positive and measurable impact of change," and states that benefits are "the measurable improvement resulting from an outcome perceived as an advantage by one or more stakeholders," which aligns with option C.