Summary:
The project management plan (PMP) is the single, integrated document that defines how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed. It is a comprehensive blueprint that consolidates all subsidiary plans (scope, schedule, cost, quality, risk, etc.) and establishes the baseline against which project performance is measured. A key function of this document is to define what constitutes project success.

Correct Option:

B. describes the success criteria for the project.
This is correct. The project management plan documents the specific, measurable criteria that will be used to judge whether the project is successful. This includes not just time and cost targets, but also scope, quality, and benefit realization criteria, providing a complete picture of what "done" and "successful" means.

Incorrect Option:

A. justifies undertaking the project.
This is the purpose of the business case. The business case provides the justification and reason for the project's existence, while the project management plan describes how it will be delivered.

C. focuses primarily on time related issues.
This is incorrect. While the schedule is a critical component, the PMP is a comprehensive document that covers all aspects of the project, including scope, cost, quality, risk, resources, and communications. It does not focus primarily on one area.

D. describes the success factor for the project.
This is a subtle but important distinction. Success factors are the elements necessary to achieve success (e.g., effective sponsorship, clear requirements). Success criteria are the measures used to judge success. The PMP formally documents the success criteria.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.3 (Scheduling) and 2.5 (Project Management). It refers to the project management plan as the key document that defines the project's objectives and how they will be achieved, which inherently includes defining the success criteria.

Summary:
The project life cycle consists of distinct phases, each with a specific purpose. The Procurement Strategy is a high-level plan defining how, when, and from whom goods and services will be acquired. It must be developed early enough to inform major project decisions and budgeting, but only after there is a clear enough understanding of the project's needs to make sound strategic choices.

Correct Option:

B. Definition.
This is the correct phase. During the Definition phase, the project's scope, objectives, and deliverables are detailed. This clarity is a prerequisite for creating a meaningful Procurement Strategy, as it defines what needs to be procured. The strategy can then be developed to determine how to procure it, forming a key part of the overall project management plan before execution begins.

Incorrect Option:

A. Concept.
The Concept phase is too early. At this stage, the project's feasibility and high-level justification are being explored. The detailed requirements necessary to formulate a procurement strategy are not yet known.

C. Deployment.
The Deployment (or Implementation) phase is too late. This is when the project's deliverables are being built and executed. The Procurement Strategy must be in place before this phase to guide the actual procurement activities, such as tendering and contract awarding.

D. Transition.
The Transition phase involves handing over the final project deliverables to the operational teams. By this point, all significant procurement should be complete, making the development of a procurement strategy irrelevant.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.10 (Procurement). It discusses procurement within the context of project planning and delivery. The strategy is a planning document, and the primary planning occurs during the Definition phase of the project life cycle.

Summary:
Milestones are significant events in a project schedule that represent a point of achievement, such as the completion of a major phase or a key decision point. They are used as markers for progress control, setting major deadlines, and often for triggering payments. They are not used for the detailed, day-to-day adjustment of resources, which is managed at the activity level.

Correct Option:

A. Adjusting resource requirements.
This is not a purpose of milestones. Milestones are zero-duration markers that signify a point in time; they do not consume resources themselves. Resource requirements are adjusted based on the detailed tasks and work packages leading up to a milestone, not by the milestone event.

Incorrect Option:

B. Controlling project progress.
This is a primary purpose. Milestones serve as key checkpoints to measure progress against the plan. Reaching a milestone on time indicates the project is on track, while a missed milestone signals a potential problem that needs management attention.

C. Scheduling payments for deliverables.
This is a common purpose, especially in contracts. A milestone can be linked to the completion and acceptance of a key deliverable, which then triggers a pre-agreed payment from the client to the contractor.

D. Setting major deadlines.
This is a fundamental purpose. Milestones are used to establish and communicate the project's most critical dates, such as the end of a phase, a go-live date, or a crucial review meeting.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.6 (Scheduling). It describes milestones as "significant points or events in the project" used for reporting progress, which aligns with their purposes for controlling progress and setting deadlines.

Summary:
This question tests the understanding of governance and escalation paths for risks and issues. A key principle is that the project manager is responsible for managing risks and issues within agreed-upon tolerances. However, when a problem cannot be resolved at the project level or exceeds the project manager's authority, it must be escalated to the governing body for a decision.

Correct Option:

C. Issues must be dealt with by the governance board.
This is the most correct statement among the options. While not all issues must go to the governance board, a core principle is that issues which cannot be resolved by the project manager, or which breach agreed tolerances, must be escalated to the project's governance board (e.g., Project Board) for a decision. The board has the ultimate accountability for the project and must deal with major problems.

Incorrect Option:

A. Issues must be escalated to the project sponsor.
This is incorrect because it is too specific. While the sponsor is often a key member of the governance board, the formal escalation path is to the collective governance board, not just to the sponsor individually. The board as a whole deals with the issue.

B. Risks must be escalated to the project sponsor.
This is incorrect. Most risks are managed by the project manager and team. Only major risks that exceed the project manager's authority or agreed risk thresholds are escalated, and they are escalated to the governance board, not necessarily directly and solely to the sponsor.

D. Risks must be dealt with by the governance board.
This is incorrect. The project manager owns the risk management process. The governance board's role is to set risk tolerances and make decisions on escalated risks, but they do not deal with all risks directly.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.9 (Issue and Problem Management). It states that an issue management process should define how issues are "reported, analyzed, managed, and escalated," confirming that escalation to the governance board is the correct path for unresolved or significant issues.

Summary:
An iterative life cycle involves repeating cycles of development to progressively elaborate and deliver the project's scope. While specific phase names can vary, the core of this lifecycle is the repetition of development work. The Concept and Feasibility phases are typically sequential, initial phases that occur before the iterative cycles begin. The iterative cycle itself consists of repeated Development and Deployment phases.

Correct Option:

D. 2, 3 and 4 (Feasibility, Deployment, Development).
This is the correct set for an iterative lifecycle. The process often begins with a Feasibility phase. The core iterative loop then consists of repeated Development (building a feature or increment) and Deployment (releasing that increment) phases. This "Develop-Deploy" cycle repeats until the final product is complete.

Incorrect Option:

A. 3 and 4 only (Deployment and Development).
This is incomplete. While Development and Deployment form the core iterative loop, a preliminary Feasibility phase is typically needed to determine if the project is viable before committing to the iterative development cycles.

B. 1, 2 and 3 (Concept, Feasibility, Deployment).
This is incorrect because it omits the Development phase, which is the fundamental activity within any iterative cycle. You cannot have a deployment without development.

C. 1 and 2 only (Concept and Feasibility).
This describes only the initial, pre-project sequential phases. It completely omits the iterative delivery phases (Development and Deployment) that define this type of life cycle.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.4 (Development Approaches). It describes iterative and hybrid lifecycles as those where "scope is delivered in successive groups of features or products," which aligns with the repeated sequence of Development and Deployment phases following initial feasibility.

Summary:
Quality planning is a proactive process that defines the quality standards for the project and determines how they will be met. It focuses on establishing processes, resources, and criteria to prevent defects and ensure deliverables are correct. It does not involve planning for the financial consequences of failure, which is a reactive measure handled by other planning areas.

Correct Option:

A. Contingency budget for remedial work.
This is not considered by quality planning. A contingency budget for rework or remedial work is part of cost or risk management planning. Quality planning is focused on "getting it right the first time" (prevention over inspection). Budgeting for failure assumes defects will occur, which contradicts the proactive purpose of quality planning.

Incorrect Option:

B. Equipment required for quality testing.
This is a direct concern of quality planning. The plan must identify the tools, equipment, and resources needed to perform the required quality control activities, such as testing and inspection.

C. Staff qualified to undertake inspections.
This is considered by quality planning. The plan must specify the skills, competencies, and roles needed to perform quality-related activities, which directly influences training needs and resource acquisition.

D. Processes to obtain stakeholder approvals.
This is a key part of quality planning. The plan defines the acceptance criteria for deliverables and the specific processes (e.g., reviews, sign-offs) for obtaining formal stakeholder approval, which is a critical quality gate.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.12 (Quality Management). It describes quality planning as identifying quality standards and determining how to satisfy them, which involves processes, resources, and criteria—not the budget for fixing failures. Cost contingency is addressed in Section 3.5 (Estimating).

Summary:
Quality control (QC) involves the operational activities used to fulfill quality requirements, such as testing and inspection. Test plans are a key component of this, detailing how and when testing will be performed. To be effective, these plans must be established early, during the planning phase of the project, to ensure they are integrated into the schedule, budget, and overall approach.

Correct Option:

A. During quality planning.
This is the correct answer. Test plans are an output of the quality planning process. They must be agreed upon and established during the project's planning stage to ensure that:

The necessary resources (time, people, equipment) are allocated.

Acceptance criteria are clear to the team before work begins.

Testing activities are scheduled appropriately within the project timeline.

Incorrect Option:

B. When the live product is available for test.
This is far too late. Waiting until the product is complete to agree on a test plan would cause significant delays, as resources wouldn't be scheduled, and the approach would be undefined, leading to chaotic and ineffective testing.

C. At the end of the project.
The end of the project is when the final deliverables are being handed over. All testing should be complete by this point, making the agreement of test plans at this stage irrelevant.

D. Prior to handover of the output.
While this is before the very end, it is still too late in the project lifecycle. "Prior to handover" is during the final stages of execution. Test plans need to be agreed upon much earlier, during the initial Definition/planning phase, to guide the development work.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.12 (Quality Management). It describes quality planning as the process of identifying quality requirements and standards and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance. This includes developing test plans as a key activity during the planning stage.

Summary:
In a phased project life cycle, formal reviews are held at the end of each phase before significant resources are committed to the next. The primary purpose of this review is to make a strategic decision about the project's future. This checkpoint allows the governing body to assess progress, validate the business case, and authorize the project to proceed, be modified, or be terminated.

Correct Option:

A. decision gate.
This is the correct term. A decision gate (also commonly known as a stage gate or kill point) is a formally scheduled event in the project life cycle where the project's status is reviewed by the governance board to make a go/no-go decision about proceeding to the next phase.

Incorrect Option:

B. feasibility study.
This is an initial phase or activity within a project, conducted to determine if the project is viable. It is not the review that decides to proceed from one phase to the next. The output of a feasibility study might be presented at a decision gate.

C. milestone review.
A milestone marks a significant achievement in the project schedule, but not all milestones are decision points. A "milestone review" is a less formal and less specific term than "decision gate," which explicitly implies a go/no-go decision.

D. evaluation review.
This is a generic term that could refer to any assessment activity. It lacks the specific connotation of being the formal governance checkpoint that authorizes the project to move forward into its next phase.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 2.2 (Project Life Cycle). It describes the use of phases and governance decision points, stating that the end of a phase "provides a natural break point to review progress and to approve the start of the next phase." This is the definition of a decision gate.

Summary:
Successful project communication is not about using a single method or having one person responsible. It is a strategic activity based on understanding the audience. Different stakeholders have different information needs, preferred formats, and frequencies for communication. Tailoring the communication approach to these specific needs ensures the information is received, understood, and acted upon effectively.

Correct Option:

D. the different communication needs of each stakeholder group are fully understood.
This is the foundation of successful communication. A communication plan is built on stakeholder analysis, which identifies what information each group needs, when they need it, and in what format. This targeted approach ensures relevance and effectiveness, making communication successful.

Incorrect Option:

A. the project sponsor takes responsibility for planning all stakeholder communication from the outset.
While the sponsor is a key stakeholder, planning all communication is the responsibility of the project manager. Centralizing this task with the sponsor is inefficient and impractical, as the project manager is closer to the day-to-day information flow and stakeholder interactions.

B. email is the primary method used in order to get information to stakeholders in a speedy and efficient manner.
Relying on a single method is ineffective. While email is fast, it is not suitable for all types of information or all stakeholders. Some messages require interactive meetings, while others are best delivered via formal reports. A one-size-fits-all approach leads to information being ignored or missed.

C. a standard project communication format for reports is used to provide feedback to stakeholders.
Standardization is useful for consistency in reporting, but it does not guarantee success. If the standard format does not meet the specific needs of a stakeholder group (e.g., too detailed for senior management, too high-level for technical teams), the communication will fail to engage them effectively.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 4.6 (Communication). It emphasizes that effective communication requires understanding the audience and their information needs, stating that communication management involves "systematic planning, implementing, controlling... of the parties to be communicated with," which aligns with understanding different stakeholder needs.

Summary:
Project risk management is a comprehensive, systematic process that runs throughout the project life cycle. It is not a single activity but an ongoing discipline. While identifying threats and planning responses are part of the process, the overarching description encompasses the entire objective: to proactively manage uncertainties to improve the chance of project success.

Correct Option:

D. minimising threats and maximising opportunities.
This is the best and most complete description. It captures the dual nature of risk management (both threats and opportunities) and describes its ultimate objective. The entire risk management process—from identification through to response implementation—is aimed at achieving this overall goal.

Incorrect Option:

A. managing responses to threats.
This is too narrow. It describes only one part of the process (implementing responses) and focuses only on threats, completely ignoring opportunities.

B. identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities.
This is also incomplete. While identification and acknowledgement are crucial first steps, risk management involves much more, including analysis, planning, and implementation of responses.

C. planning responses to threats.
This is a subset of the overall process. Planning responses is a key activity, but it does not encompass the full cycle of identification, analysis, and implementation, and it again ignores opportunities.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 3.11 (Risk Management). It describes risk management as the "systematic application of principles, approach and processes to identify and assess risks and then to plan and implement a suitable response." The purpose of these responses is to minimize threats and maximize opportunities, making option D the best summary description.

Summary:
Programme management operates at a strategic level above individual projects. It is not merely the management of multiple projects or large projects. Its primary purpose is to coordinate a group of related projects and business-as-usual activities to deliver outcomes and strategic benefits that would not be achievable if the projects were managed independently.

Correct Option:

C. the means of linking business strategy to projects within an organisation.
This is the best description. A programme is initiated to achieve a strategic business objective. It provides the framework for initiating projects and other work that are aligned to this strategy, ensuring that the collective output of the projects delivers the intended business change and benefits.

Incorrect Option:

A. the management of multiple projects by one project manager.
This describes a multi-project management role, not programme management. In a programme, projects have their own project managers, and the programme manager coordinates them at a higher level to realize strategic benefits.

B. the management of very large, complex projects.
A very large project is still a single project, managed by a project manager using project management methodologies. Programme management specifically involves coordinating multiple, discrete projects that contribute to a common strategic goal.

D. a fashionable term which means the same as Project Management.
This is false. Programme management and project management are distinct disciplines with different focuses, as defined by professional bodies like APM. Project management focuses on delivering outputs, while programme management focuses on achieving strategic outcomes and benefits.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 2.3 (Programme Management). It defines a programme as "a unique, transient, strategic endeavour undertaken to achieve beneficial change," and states that programme management "aligns with corporate strategy," directly supporting option C.

Summary:
A decision gate, or stage gate, is a formal review point at the end of a project phase. Its purpose is to determine if the project should proceed to the next phase. The key questions asked are fundamentally about the project's past performance, current viability, and future plan to ensure it remains justified and is set up for success before further resources are committed.

Correct Option:

A. 1, 2 and 3 (Is the business case viable? What has been achieved? What is required for the next stage?).
This is the correct set. These questions directly assess the core elements for a continuation decision:

1) Business Case Viability: Confirms the project is still strategically justified.

2) Achievements: Verifies that the current phase has met its objectives.

3) Requirements for Next Stage: Ensures there is a clear and viable plan for the upcoming phase.

Incorrect Option:

B. 1, 2 and 4.
This is incorrect because it includes stakeholder engagement (4) and excludes the plan for the next stage (3). While stakeholder engagement is important, the critical question for a gate decision is whether there is a sound plan to proceed.

C. 2, 3 and 4.
This is incorrect because it excludes the vital review of the business case (1). The continued strategic justification of the project is the most important factor in a go/no-go decision.

D. 1, 3 and 4.
This is incorrect because it excludes reviewing what has been achieved in the current phase (2). The project board must verify that phase objectives have been met before authorizing the next phase.

Reference:
APM Body of Knowledge 7th Edition, Section 2.2 (Project Life Cycle). It describes the purpose of phases and decision points as providing a break to "review progress and to approve the start of the next phase," which inherently involves reviewing achievements (2), the viability of the business case (1), and the plan for the next stage (3).