Explanation for Each Option:

A. crypto ca identity 172.19.20.24 (Incorrect):
The crypto ca identity command is used to specify a certificate authority (CA) identity for certificate-based authentication in IPsec VPNs, not to restrict the ISAKMP key to a specific IP address. It does not configure pre-shared keys or limit traffic termination, making this option irrelevant to the requirement. (Reference: Cisco IOS IPsec CA Configuration Guide.)

B. crypto isakmp key Cisco0123456789 172.19.20.24 (Correct):
The crypto isakmp key command configures a pre-shared key (Cisco0123456789) for Internet Key Exchange (IKE/ISAKMP) Phase 1 authentication. Specifying the IP address 172.19.20.24 ensures that the key is used only for terminating traffic from that specific peer, meeting the organization’s need to restrict the hub’s ISAKMP key usage. (Reference: Cisco IOS ISAKMP Configuration Guide.)

C. crypto enrollment peer address 172.19.20.24 (Incorrect):
The crypto enrollment peer address command is used during certificate enrollment to specify the peer’s IP address for manual enrollment with a CA, not to configure or restrict ISAKMP keys. It is unrelated to the site-to-site VPN key termination requirement, rendering this option incorrect. (Reference: Cisco IOS PKI Enrollment Guide.)

D. crypto isakmp identity address 172.19.20.24 (Incorrect):
The crypto isakmp identity address command sets the identity type for ISAKMP negotiation to use the IP address, but it does not configure a pre-shared key or restrict the key’s use to a specific peer IP. It defines how the router identifies itself, not the peer restriction needed, making this option unsuitable. (Reference: Cisco IOS ISAKMP Identity Configuration.)

Additional Notes:
Configuring ISAKMP keys for site-to-site VPNs is a key topic in the 350-701 SCOR exam under VPN technologies. As of 11:43 AM PKT, October 02, 2025, this command ensures secure peer-specific authentication. For details, refer to the Cisco IOS Security Configuration Guide (cisco.com) and the 350-701 Exam Blueprint (Section 3.0 Security Concepts).

Explanation:
Multiple context mode is a virtualization feature on the Cisco ASA that allows a single physical appliance to be partitioned into multiple, independent virtual firewalls, each called a "security context."

C) multiple context mode is CORRECT.
This is the definitive feature for providing separation of management on a shared appliance. In this mode:

Each context has its own separate configuration, security policies, interfaces (logical), and administrators.

An administrator for one context cannot see or manage any other context.

This is ideal for service providers or large enterprises that need to provide fully isolated firewall services to different departments or customers using a single hardware platform.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A) DMZ multiple zone mode is INCORRECT.
This is not a standard ASA deployment mode. A DMZ is a network segment created by firewall policy (e.g., by applying different security levels to interfaces), but it does not provide separate management planes on a shared appliance.

B) transparent firewall mode is INCORRECT.
Transparent mode changes the ASA from a Layer 3 router to a Layer 2 bridge. It is a different operational mode, but it does not create multiple, separately managed virtual firewalls. A transparent firewall is still a single management domain.

D) routed mode is INCORRECT.
Routed mode is the default firewall mode where the ASA acts as a Layer 3 hop. Like transparent mode, it is a single management domain and does not provide the separation of management that multiple contexts offer.

Reference:
Cisco ASA Series Configuration Guide, "Multiple Context Mode": The official documentation states that multiple context mode "lets you partition a single ASA into multiple virtual devices," each with its own configuration and management.

NTLMSSP

Kerberos

application security gateway

Configure DHCP snooping and set a trusted interface for the DHCP server

Explanation
At its core, a SQL injection vulnerability is not a flaw in the database itself, the operating system, or any static content like images. It is fundamentally a flaw in the application code—specifically, how that code handles data that comes from a user.

Here is the precise mechanism:

The Trusting Application:
A web application is built to take input from a user (e.g., a username, a search term, an ID number) through a form field or a URL parameter.

The Dynamic Query:
The application takes this user input and, using code, constructs a SQL database query to look up or modify data. For example, a login page might create a query like this:

SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = '[user_input]' AND password = '[user_input]';

The Flaw:
Lack of Validation/Sanitization: The vulnerability exists when the application blindly trusts the user input and concatenates it directly into the SQL query string without checking, cleaning, or separating it from the command itself.


The Exploit:
The Malicious Input: An attacker provides cleverly crafted input that changes the meaning of the SQL command. Instead of entering a simple username, they might enter: ' OR '1'='1

This would result in the final query becoming:

SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = '' OR '1'='1' AND password = 'anything';

Because '1'='1' is always true, this query could bypass authentication and return all users from the database.

The flaw the attacker is leveraging is the failure of the web page or web application to properly validate, sanitize, or parameterize the user input before using it to talk to the database.

Detailed Breakdown of Incorrect Options:

B. Linux and Windows operating systems:

Why it is incorrect:
SQL injection is an application-layer attack. The operating system (OS) on which the web server or database server is running is largely irrelevant. While a successful SQL injection could potentially be used as a stepping stone to attack the underlying OS (a technique known as privilege escalation), the initial vulnerability and the flaw being exploited reside in the application's code, not in the OS kernel or its configuration.

C. database:

Why it is incorrect:
This is a common misconception. Major databases like Oracle, SQL Server, MySQL, and PostgreSQL are not inherently "flawed" in a way that allows SQL injection. They are designed to execute whatever SQL commands they are sent. The problem is that the application is sending a maliciously formed command. The database is simply doing its job by executing it. Properly written application code that uses techniques like prepared statements (which separate the SQL command logic from the data) can use the exact same database without any risk of SQL injection.

D. web page images:

Why it is incorrect:
Static content like images, CSS, or JavaScript files (while they can be vectors for other attacks like XSS if improperly handled) are not involved in the SQL injection process. The exploit occurs when user-controlled input from form fields, URL parameters, or HTTP headers is incorporated into a dynamic SQL query. Images have no bearing on this data flow.

Reference and Key Takeaway:

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project):
SQL injection has consistently been a top-tier vulnerability in the OWASP Top 10 list of critical web application security risks. OWASP explicitly defines the root cause as "user-supplied input [that] is not validated, filtered, or sanitized by the application."

CWE (Common Weakness Enumeration):
This vulnerability is officially cataloged as CWE-89: Improper Neutralization of Special Elements used in an SQL Command ('SQL Injection').

In summary:
The attacker's leverage point is the trust the application places in unvalidated user input. The defense, therefore, must be implemented in the application's code through rigorous input validation, sanitization, and the use of parameterized queries or prepared statements.

Configure intrusion rules for the DNP3 preprocessor

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/630/configuration/guide/fpmcconfigguide-
v63/scada_preprocessors.htmlBoth DNP3 and CIP preprocessors can be used
to detect traffic anomalies but we choose CIP as it is widely used in industrial
applications.Note:+ An intrusion rule is a specified set of keywords and arguments that the
system uses to detect attempts to exploit vulnerabilities in your network. As the system
analyzes network traffic, it compares packets against the conditions specified in each rule,
and triggers the rule if the data packet meets all the conditions specified in the rule. +
Preprocessor rules, which are rules associated with preprocessors and packet decoder
detection options in the network analysis policy. Most preprocessor rules are disabled by
default.

Explanation:
While all the options provide forms of telemetry, NetFlow (and its industry-standard version, IPFIX) is considered the baseline, recommended form of telemetry for understanding network behavior and security posture.

Let's break down the options:

B) NetFlow is CORRECT.
NetFlow provides a rich set of metadata about network conversations. It answers the critical questions: Who is talking to whom, over what protocol and port, for how long, and how much data was transferred? This "flow" data is the cornerstone for:

Network Performance Monitoring:
Identifying top talkers and application usage.

Security Analysis:
Detecting anomalies, data exfiltration, and beaconing to command-and-control servers (used by tools like Cisco Stealthwatch).

Capacity Planning:
Understanding traffic patterns over time.

It is a lightweight, ubiquitous standard supported on nearly all enterprise-grade network infrastructure.

Why the other options are incorrect or less "baseline":

A) SDNS is INCORRECT.
This appears to be a distractor. There is no widely recognized telemetry standard called "SDNS." It may be a misspelling or confusion with DNS (Domain Name System), which is itself a critical source of security telemetry but is not the "baseline" for general network infrastructure telemetry.

C) passive taps is INCORRECT.
A passive tap is a method for collecting data, not a type of telemetry itself. You can use a tap to collect NetFlow, full packet data, or other information. Taps are excellent for specific, deep-dive analysis but are not deployed on every link and are not as scalable or lightweight as the flow data exported natively by network devices.

D) SNMP is INCORRECT, but a common distractor.
SNMP is primarily used for device health and status monitoring (e.g., CPU, memory, interface up/down, interface byte counters). It tells you how the device itself is performing and how much traffic is on a link, but it does not provide the crucial details about the conversations happening on the network (source, destination, application) that NetFlow provides. SNMP and NetFlow are complementary, but for understanding network behavior, NetFlow is the more powerful and recommended baseline.

Reference:

Cisco Guide to Network Telemetry: Official documentation consistently positions NetFlow/IPFIX as the fundamental data source for network visibility and security analytics.

Cisco Stealthwatch Solution Overview: Stealthwatch, Cisco's primary network security analytics platform, is built around the consumption and analysis of NetFlow data as its primary source of intelligence.

blocked

Explanation for Each Option:

A. Guest (Incorrect):
Guest access typically provides restricted network access, often through a captive portal or temporary credentials. When transparent authentication fails on the Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA), the system cannot verify the user’s identity, and it does not default to guest access. Instead, to enforce security policies, access is blocked entirely to prevent unauthorized use, making this option incorrect. Guest access requires explicit configuration, which is not the default behavior.

(Reference: Cisco WSA Administration Guide, Authentication Settings.) (63 words)

B. Limited Internet (Incorrect):
Limited Internet access suggests partial connectivity, such as access to specific sites or services. However, when transparent authentication fails, the WSA cannot apply user-specific policies due to the lack of identity verification. The default action is to block all access to ensure security compliance, not to allow limited access. This option is incorrect as it does not align with the WSA’s strict authentication requirements.

(Reference: Cisco WSA Configuration Guide, Policy Enforcement.) (62 words)

C. Blocked (Correct):
When transparent authentication fails on the Cisco WSA, the appliance cannot authenticate the user to apply access policies. To maintain security, the default action is to block all internet access, preventing unverified users from bypassing security controls. This ensures no unauthorized access occurs, aligning with the WSA’s security-first design. This is the correct behavior as per the appliance’s authentication failure handling.

(Reference: Cisco WSA Administration Guide, Chapter on Authentication and Access Policies.) (64 words)

D. Full Internet (Incorrect):
Full Internet access implies unrestricted connectivity, which is a significant security risk. If transparent authentication fails, the WSA cannot verify the user, and granting full access would violate security policies. Instead, the appliance blocks access to prevent potential threats, making this option incorrect. The WSA prioritizes security over unrestricted access in such scenarios.

(Reference: Cisco WSA Deployment Guide, Authentication Failure Handling.) (60 words)

Additional Notes:
The Cisco Web Security Appliance uses transparent authentication (e.g., NTLM, Kerberos) to seamlessly identify users. If authentication fails, the WSA blocks access by default to enforce security policies, as unverified users could bypass restrictions. For detailed information, refer to the Cisco Web Security Appliance Administration Guide (available on Cisco’s official website, cisco.com, under WSA documentation, specifically sections on authentication and access control). If you have more questions, please share them!

Generate the RSA key using the crypto key generate rsa command.

In this question, the engineer was trying to secure
the connection so maybe he was trying to allow SSH to the device. But maybe something went wrong so the connection was failing (the connection used to be good). So maybe he was missing the “crypto key generate rsa” command.

Explanation for Each Option:

A. It is an authentication broker to enable single sign-on and multi-factor authentication for a cloud solution (Incorrect):
While a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) can enhance security by integrating with identity management systems, its primary function is not limited to authentication (e.g., single sign-on or multi-factor authentication). This role is more aligned with identity providers like Cisco Duo, not the broader security and monitoring scope of a CASB. (Reference: Cisco Cloudlock Overview, Authentication vs. CASB.)

B. It integrates with other cloud solutions via APIs and monitors and creates incidents based on events from the cloud solution (Correct):
A CASB, such as Cisco Cloudlock, functions by integrating with cloud applications (e.g., Office 365, Salesforce) via APIs to provide visibility, monitor user and data activities, and detect security events. It generates incidents or alerts based on policy violations or threats, fulfilling its role in cloud security. (Reference: Cisco CASB Datasheet, API Integration.)

C. It acts as a security information and event management solution and receives syslog from other cloud solutions (Incorrect):
A CASB is distinct from a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system, which aggregates logs (e.g., syslog) from various sources for analysis. CASBs focus on cloud-specific security via API integration, not syslog collection, making this option a mischaracterization of its functionality. (Reference: Cisco SIEM vs. CASB Comparison.)

D. It scans other cloud solutions being used within the network and identifies vulnerabilities (Incorrect):
While a CASB can identify misconfigurations or risky behaviors in cloud applications, its primary role is not to scan for vulnerabilities like a vulnerability management tool. It monitors usage and enforces policies via APIs, not performing active vulnerability scans, making this option an incomplete description. (Reference: Cisco Cloudlock User Guide, Monitoring Features.)

Additional Notes:
CASB functionality, relevant to the 350-701 SCOR exam under cloud security, enhances cloud environment protection. As of 09:20 AM PKT, October 02, 2025, this remains a critical technology. For details, refer to the Cisco Cloudlock documentation (cisco.com) and the 350-701 Exam Blueprint (Section 3.0 Security Concepts).

unified management of mobile devices, Macs, and PCs from a centralized dashboard

enforcement of device security policies from a centralized dashboard