350-701 Practice Test Questions

721 Questions


Topic 2: Exam Pool B

What are two differences between a Cisco WSA that is running in transparent mode and
one running in explicit mode? (Choose two)


A.

When the Cisco WSA is running in transparent mode, it uses the WSA’s own IP address
as the HTTP
request destination.


B.

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode


C.

The Cisco WSA is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode


D.

The Cisco WSA uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in
transparent mode.


E.

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent
mode.





D.
  

The Cisco WSA uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in
transparent mode.



E.
  

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent
mode.



The Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA) includes
a web proxy, a threat analytics engine, antimalware engine, policy management, and
reporting in a single physical or virtual appliance. The main use of the Cisco WSA is to
protect users from accessing malicious websites and being infected by malware.You can
deploy the Cisco WSA in two different modes:– Explicit forward mode– Transparent
modeIn explicit forward mode, the client is configured to explicitly use the proxy,
subsequently sending all web traffic to the proxy. Because the client knows there is a proxy
and sends all traffic to the proxy in explicit forward mode, the client does not perform a
DNS lookup of the domain before requesting the URL. The Cisco WSA is responsible for
DNS resolution, as well.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/tech/content-networking/web-cachecommunications-
protocol-wccp/index.html->Therefore answer D is correct as redirection
can be done on Layer 3 device only.In transparent mode, the client is unaware its traffic is
being sent to a proxy (Cisco WSA) and, as a result, the client uses DNS to resolve the
domain name in the URL and send the web request destined for the web server (not the
proxy). When you configure the Cisco WSA in transparent mode, you need to identify a
network choke point with a redirection device (a Cisco ASA) to redirect traffic to the proxy.
WSA in Transparent modeReference: CCNP And CCIE Security Core SCOR 350-701
Official Cert Guide-> Therefore in Transparent mode, WSA uses its own IP address to
initiate a new connection the Web Server(in step 4 above) -> Answer E is correct.Answer C
is surely not correct as WSA cannot be configured in a web browser in either mode.Answer
A seems to be correct but it is not. This answer is correct if it states “When the Cisco WSA
is running intransparent mode, it uses the WSA’s own IP address as the HTTP request
source” (not destination).

An engineer is configuring AMP for endpoints and wants to block certain files from
executing. Which outbreak control method is used to accomplish this task?


A.

device flow correlation


B.

simple detections


C.

application blocking list


D.

advanced custom detections





C.
  

application blocking list



How does DNS Tunneling exfiltrate data?


A.

An attacker registers a domain that a client connects to based on DNS records and
sends malware through
that connection.


B.

An attacker opens a reverse DNS shell to get into the client’s system and install malware on it.


C.

An attacker uses a non-standard DNS port to gain access to the organization’s DNS
servers in order to
poison the resolutions.


D.

An attacker sends an email to the target with hidden DNS resolvers in it to redirect them
to a malicious
domain.





A.
  

An attacker registers a domain that a client connects to based on DNS records and
sends malware through
that connection.



An engineer needs a cloud solution that will monitor traffic, create incidents based on events, and integrate with other cloud solutions via an API. Which solution should be used to accomplish this goal?


A. SIEM


B. CASB


C. Adaptive MFA


D. Cisco Cloudlock





D.
  Cisco Cloudlock

Explanation
The question asks for a cloud solution with three specific capabilities:

Monitor traffic.

Create incidents based on events.

Integrate with other cloud solutions via an API.

D. Cisco Cloudlock:
This is the correct answer. Cisco Cloudlock is a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) that operates using API integration. It is specifically designed to:

Monitor Traffic/Activity:
It uses APIs to monitor user activity, data access, and application configuration across cloud services like Microsoft 365, Google Workspace, Salesforce, and others.

Create Incidents Based on Events:
It has a built-in incident management system where it creates security incidents based on detected policy violations or anomalous events (e.g., a user downloading a large volume of sensitive data, a suspicious login from a new location).

Integrate via an API:
Its primary method of operation and extensibility is through APIs, allowing it to pull data from cloud applications and integrate with other security solutions like SIEMs, firewalls, and ticketing systems.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management):
While a SIEM does "monitor traffic" (via logs), "create incidents," and "integrate via API," it is a general-purpose security monitoring platform. The question's context points towards a cloud-native solution. Cisco's cloud-focused offering for this specific use case is Cloudlock, which can feed data into a SIEM.

B. CASB:
This is a strong distractor, and Cisco Cloudlock is a CASB. However, "CASB" is a category of technology (like "car"), while Cisco Cloudlock is the specific product (like "Honda Civic") that fulfills this role within the Cisco portfolio. The exam typically expects the specific Cisco product name when it is listed.

C. Adaptive MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication):
This solution is focused purely on authentication and verifying user identity. It does not monitor general cloud traffic or create security incidents based on events within cloud applications. Its function is to provide a secure gate, not to monitor what happens inside.

Reference:
This aligns with the features and positioning of Cisco Cloudlock (now part of the Cisco Secure Cloud Analytics suite for user protection) within the Cisco security portfolio.

Cisco Cloudlock Data Sheet: Highlights its capabilities as a cloud-native security platform that uses APIs to provide visibility, data security, and threat protection for cloud applications, with built-in incident management and extensive integration capabilities.

In summary, Cisco Cloudlock is the Cisco solution explicitly built as a cloud-native, API-based platform to monitor cloud application usage, detect threats, and manage incidents.

A network engineer is deciding whether to use stateful or stateless failover when configuring two ASAs for high availability. What is the connection status in both cases?


A. need to be reestablished with stateful failover and preserved with stateless failover


B. preserved with stateful failover and need to be reestablished with stateless failover


C. preserved with both stateful and stateless failover


D. need to be reestablished with both stateful and stateless failover





D.
  need to be reestablished with both stateful and stateless failover

Explanation for Each Option:

A. Need to be reestablished with both stateful and stateless failover (Incorrect):
This is incorrect because stateful failover in Cisco ASA maintains active connections by replicating session state information to the standby unit, preserving them during a failover. Only stateless failover requires reestablishment, making this option inaccurate. (Reference: Cisco ASA Failover Configuration Guide, Stateful vs. Stateless.)

B. Need to be reestablished with stateful failover and preserved with stateless failover (Incorrect):
This reverses the correct behavior. Stateful failover preserves connections by replicating state data, while stateless failover does not, requiring reestablishment. The option contradicts the defined functionalities, rendering it incorrect. (Reference: Cisco ASA High Availability Guide, Failover Types.)

C. Preserved with both stateful and stateless failover (Incorrect):
Stateless failover does not preserve connection states, as it only replicates basic configuration and interface status, not session details. Only stateful failover maintains active connections, making this option incorrect for stateless failover. (Reference: Cisco ASA Stateless Failover Overview.)

D. Preserved with stateful failover and need to be reestablished with stateless failover (Correct):
In stateful failover, Cisco ASA replicates connection state information (e.g., TCP/UDP sessions, NAT translations) to the standby unit, preserving active connections during failover. In stateless failover, only basic configuration is replicated, requiring existing connections to be reestablished, aligning with this option as the correct answer. (Reference: Cisco ASA Stateful Failover Guide.)

Additional Notes:
Configuring ASA failover is a key topic in the 350-701 SCOR exam under network security. As of 3:05 PM PKT, October 03, 2025, understanding failover types is critical for high availability.

An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on the network and wants to be able to gain visibility on the applications within the network. The solution must be able to maintain and force compliance. Which product should be used to meet these requirements?


A. Cisco Umbrella


B. Cisco AMP


C. Cisco Stealthwatch


D. Cisco Tetration





D.
  Cisco Tetration

Explanation The requirements are very specific and point directly to a solution designed for data center and cloud workload security:

Implement micro-segmentation:
This involves creating granular security policies that control traffic between workloads (servers), even within the same network segment. It's about enforcing "east-west" traffic policies.

Gain visibility on the applications within the network:
This requires deep, application-level insight into which processes are talking to each other, on which ports, and using which protocols.

Maintain and force compliance:
The solution must not only set policies but also continuously enforce them and ensure that any deviation (like a server communicating in an unauthorized way) is blocked or alerted on.

Cisco Tetration is specifically built to meet all these requirements:

Visibility:
Tetration uses a lightweight agent installed on every workload (physical, virtual, or cloud) to collect a massive amount of data, including all network flows, processes, and software inventory. This provides an unparalleled view of application dependencies and communication patterns.

Micro-segmentation:
Using the application dependency map it creates, Tetration allows administrators to create whitelist policies that define exactly which workloads are allowed to communicate and how. It then pushes these policies as distributed firewall rules (e.g., using host firewalls like iptables or Windows Firewall) to each individual workload, effectively implementing micro-segmentation.

Compliance Enforcement:
The policies are enforced directly on the workload. Tetration continuously monitors for violations and can automatically remediate or generate alerts, ensuring ongoing compliance with the intended security posture.

Detailed Breakdown of Incorrect Options

A. Cisco Umbrella

Why it is incorrect:
Cisco Umbrella is a DNS-layer security solution. It blocks malicious domains, IPs, and URLs at the DNS level. It is excellent for protecting users from internet-based threats ("north-south" traffic) but provides no visibility or control over east-west application traffic within the network, which is the core of micro-segmentation.

B. Cisco AMP (Advanced Malware Protection) for Endpoints

Why it is incorrect:
Cisco AMP is an endpoint protection solution focused on preventing, detecting, and responding to file-based malware on endpoints like laptops, desktops, and servers. While it protects the endpoint itself, it does not have the capability to map application dependencies or enforce network-level micro-segmentation policies between workloads.

C. Cisco Stealthwatch

Why it is incorrect:
Cisco Stealthwatch is a premier network traffic analysis (NTA) and threat detection solution. It excels at visibility by using NetFlow and other telemetry to identify threats, suspicious behavior, and policy violations across the network. It can identify policy violations that could inform a micro-segmentation strategy, but it is primarily a monitoring and alerting tool. It does not actively enforce micro-segmentation policies by pushing firewall rules to workloads like Tetration does. Stealthwatch tells you what is happening, while Tetration is designed to define and enforce what should happen.

Reference:
The Cisco Tetration data sheet and solution overview explicitly list its use cases as "Micro-segmentation," "Application Dependency Mapping," and "Vulnerability Management."

Key Takeaway:
When the requirement is a holistic solution for implementing and enforcing micro-segmentation based on deep application visibility, Cisco Tetration is the definitive Cisco product designed for this exact purpose in data center and cloud environments.

What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?


A. Deceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role


B. A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.


C. Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.


D. Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.





B.
  A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.

Explanation
The core difference lies in the targeting and personalization of the attack.

Deceptive Phishing (or Bulk Phishing):
This is the classic, widespread phishing attack. Attackers send out millions of generic, non-personalized emails pretending to be from a well-known company (like Microsoft, Amazon, or a bank). The goal is to cast a wide net and trick as many people as possible into clicking a malicious link or revealing their credentials. The content is not tailored to the recipient. An example is an email stating "Your Amazon account is locked!" sent to a massive list of email addresses.

Spear Phishing:
This is a highly targeted attack aimed at a specific individual or a small, specific group within an organization. The attackers conduct research on their victim(s) using social media (LinkedIn, Facebook), company websites, and other sources. They use this information to craft a highly convincing and personalized email. The email might reference a project the victim is working on, a colleague's name, or a recent company event to build trust. The goal is often to steal sensitive information or gain initial access to the corporate network.

In short:
Think of Deceptive Phishing as spam—it's sent to everyone. Think of Spear Phishing as a handcrafted, personal letter—it's sent specifically to you.

Detailed Breakdown of Incorrect Options

A. Deceptive phishing is an attack aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.

Why it is incorrect:
This description is actually the definition of Whaling, which is a sub-category of spear phishing. Whaling specifically targets high-profile executives like CEOs, CFOs, or other "big fish" (hence the name). Deceptive phishing is the opposite; it is a broad, non-targeted attack.

C. Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.

Why it is incorrect:
While this is a type of spear phishing (known as Whaling), it is too narrow. Spear phishing can be aimed at any specific individual, not just C-level executives. A targeted attack against a system administrator, a finance department employee, or a junior HR person are all examples of spear phishing. The defining characteristic is the specificity of the target, not their rank.

D. Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.

Why it is incorrect:
This is a description of a different attack vector altogether: DNS spoofing (or DNS cache poisoning). While both DNS spoofing and deceptive phishing can be used to redirect a user to a fake login page, they are fundamentally different:

Deceptive Phishing uses a malicious link in an email. The user is tricked into clicking the link that takes them to the fake site.

DNS Spoofing compromises the DNS resolution process itself. Even if the user types a legitimate web address (like www.mybank.com) into their browser, the poisoned DNS server returns the IP address of the attacker's fake site. The flaw being exploited is in the network's DNS infrastructure, not the user's action of clicking a link in an email.

Reference:
These definitions are standard in cybersecurity frameworks and are consistently used by organizations like CISA (Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency) and SANS Institute. Understanding the taxonomy of social engineering attacks is critical for the SCOR exam.

When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?


A. Spero analysis


B. dynamic analysis


C. sandbox analysis


D. malware analysis





A.
  Spero analysis

Explanation for Each Option:

A. Spero analysis (Correct):
In Cisco AMP for Networks, Spero analysis is a feature that copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for dynamic analysis. It uses machine learning to detect unknown threats by analyzing file behavior in a virtualized environment, making it the correct choice for copying files for cloud-based analysis. (Reference: Cisco AMP for Networks Spero Guide.)

B. dynamic analysis (Incorrect):
Dynamic analysis refers to the process of executing a file in a virtual environment to observe its behavior, but it is not a specific feature that copies files to the cloud. Spero analysis encompasses this process, rendering this option less precise and incorrect. (Reference: Cisco AMP Dynamic Analysis Overview.)

C. sandbox analysis (Incorrect):
Sandbox analysis involves running files in an isolated environment for behavior analysis, a capability within AMP. However, it is not the specific feature that initiates the file copy to the cloud; Spero handles the initial upload and analysis, making this option incorrect. (Reference: Cisco AMP Sandboxing Features.)

D. malware analysis (Incorrect):
Malware analysis is a broad term for examining malicious files, which can include static or dynamic methods. It is not a specific feature for copying files to the cloud; Spero analysis is the designated process for this task, rendering this option incorrect. (Reference: Cisco AMP Malware Analysis Guide.)

Additional Notes:
Using AMP for Networks features is a key topic in the 350-701 SCOR exam under network security. As of 5:17 PM PKT, October 03, 2025, Spero enhances threat detection.

Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two)


A. Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values


B. Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.


C. Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.


D. Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries


E. Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.





B.
  Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.

E.
  Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.

Explanation
SQL injection occurs when an attacker can insert or "inject" malicious SQL code into a query by manipulating user input. The goal of prevention is to ensure user input is never interpreted as executable SQL code.

B. Use prepared statements and parameterized queries:
This is the most effective and primary defense against SQL injection. With this technique, the SQL query structure (the "statement") is pre-defined with placeholders for user input. The database engine then clearly distinguishes between the SQL command logic and the data. Even if an attacker submits malicious input, it is treated solely as a data value and cannot change the structure of the query or execute unintended commands.

E. Block SQL code execution in the web application database login:
This refers to applying the principle of least privilege to the database account used by the web application. The service account should have the minimum permissions necessary to function. For example, if the application only needs to SELECT data, it should not have INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or especially DROP privileges.

Furthermore, it should almost never have permissions to execute stored procedures like xp_cmdshell. By blocking the ability to execute certain types of SQL code at the database login level, you severely limit the damage of a successful injection attack, making it a critical mitigation technique.

Detailed Breakdown of Incorrect Options

A. Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.

Why it is NOT a primary prevention technique:
This practice, known as input validation or whitelisting, is a good security practice overall. However, it is a supplementary control, not a primary mitigation for SQL injection. It can be bypassed if not implemented perfectly (e.g., an attacker might find a way to represent malicious code within a valid integer format). More importantly, it fails for string inputs like names or search terms, where a wide range of characters (including single quotes) are valid. Parameterized queries are a more robust and reliable solution.

C. Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.

Why it is incorrect:
Securing the connection (e.g., using TLS/SSL) protects data from being eavesdropped on in transit. This provides confidentiality and integrity for the data between tiers but does nothing to prevent the SQL injection vulnerability itself. The malicious SQL code is injected at the web application tier before it is sent to the database. Encryption does not inspect or sanitize the query.

D. Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.

Why it is incorrect:
This is the opposite of good advice. While it's true that ORM libraries (like Hibernate, Entity Framework) can sometimes be misused in a way that leads to injection, when used correctly, they inherently generate parameterized queries. Writing raw SQL code manually is far more error-prone and greatly increases the risk of introducing an SQL injection vulnerability if the developer forgets to properly parameterize the input. Using a well-designed ORM is a recommended practice to prevent SQL injection.

Summary and Reference

OWASP Cheat Sheet:
The OSEP "SQL Injection Prevention Cheat Sheet" lists Defense Option 1: Prepared Statements (with Parameterized Queries) as the primary way to prevent this vulnerability. It also emphasizes Defense Option 3: Escaping All User Supplied Input and enforcing least privilege.

Least Privilege: This is a core security principle. By limiting the database user's permissions (Option E), you contain the blast radius of any exploit.

Key Takeaway: For the exam, remember that the two most robust and recommended techniques are:

Using parameterized queries to separate code from data.
Enforcing least privilege on the database account to limit potential damage.

Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two)


A.

AES is less secure than 3DES


B.

AES is more secure than 3DES


C.

AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.


D.

AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.


E.

AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.





B.
  

AES is more secure than 3DES



D.
  

AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.



After deploying a Cisco ESA on your network, you notice that some messages fail to reach their destinations.
Which task can you perform to determine where each message was lost?


A.

Configure the trackingconfig command to enable message tracking.


B.

Generate a system report.


C.

Review the log files.


D.

Perform a trace.





A.
  

Configure the trackingconfig command to enable message tracking.



https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-
0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011110.ht
ml

Which cryptographic process provides origin confidentiality, integrity, and origin
authentication for packets?


A.

IKEv1


B.

AH


C.

ESP


D.

IKEv2





C.
  

ESP




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