Explanation:
The question asks for the policy that specifically defines authorization—who is allowed to do what on which resources. Let's analyze the options:

A. Access control policy:
This is the correct answer. An access control policy is the foundational document that establishes the rules for authorizing users (a group of users) to perform specific actions (read, write, execute) on specific organizational resources (files, databases, systems). It directly defines the "who, what, and which" described in the question.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Audit trail policy:
This policy governs the recording and monitoring of user and system activities. It focuses on creating a log of what has happened for accountability and investigation, not on defining what users are allowed to do.

C. Logging policy:
This is similar to an audit trail policy. It defines what events must be logged, the retention period for logs, and how they are protected. It is a detective and administrative control, not an authorization control.

D. Documentation policy:
This is a general policy that sets standards for how an organization creates, manages, and stores its documents. It does not deal with user authorizations for accessing network resources.

Reference:
This distinction is fundamental in information security management. Standards like ISO/IEC 27001 (Annex A.9) specifically address access control policies as the mechanism for defining and managing user authorizations. The ECSA curriculum emphasizes that access control policies are the direct implementation of an organization's security rules regarding user permissions.

Explanation:
An Incident Recovery Plan (often part of a broader Business Continuity or Disaster Recovery Plan) is focused on restoring existing operations and systems to a functional state after an interruption. Let's analyze the objectives:

A. Creating new business processes to maintain profitability after incident:
This is NOT a primary objective of an incident recovery plan. While a major incident might trigger a business process re-engineering effort, the recovery plan itself is designed to restore pre-existing, critical business processes, not to invent new ones for profitability. This goal is strategic and falls under general business management or transformation, not tactical incident recovery.

Why the other options ARE valid objectives of an incident recovery plan:

B. Providing a standard for testing the recovery plan:
A core component of any good plan is a testing and exercise schedule. The plan itself should outline how and when it will be tested to ensure its effectiveness.

C. Avoiding the legal liabilities arising due to incident:
A proper recovery plan demonstrates due diligence. By having a plan to recover from incidents (especially those involving data breach), an organization can mitigate the legal and regulatory fallout, thus helping to avoid or reduce liabilities.

D. Providing assurance that systems are reliable:
The very existence of a tested recovery plan provides assurance to management, stakeholders, and auditors that the organization is prepared to handle disruptions and can restore system reliability within a known timeframe (the Recovery Time Objective - RTO).

Reference:
This aligns with the goals of disaster recovery and business continuity planning as defined in standards like ISO 22301 (Societal Security - Business Continuity Management Systems) and NIST SP 800-34 (Contingency Planning Guide for Federal Information Systems). The primary focus of these plans is resilience and recovery of predefined critical operations, not the strategic development of new business models for profitability.

Explanation:
This question asks for the specific command used to display network connections and listening ports, which is a common task in live system forensics to identify unauthorized connections or backdoors.

B. “netstat –an”:
This is the correct command.

netstat (network statistics) is the command used to display network connections.

The -a switch shows all active connections and the ports on which the computer is listening.

The -n switch displays addresses and port numbers in numerical form, preventing slow DNS lookups and showing the actual IP addresses

Together, netstat -an provides a clear list of all open ports and their associated IP addresses, which is exactly what is needed to identify established and listening connections on the victim computer.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. “arp” command:
This command is used to view or modify the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache, which maps IP addresses to MAC addresses on the local network segment. It does not show open ports or established TCP/UDP connections.

C. “dd” command:
This is a powerful data duplication and imaging command used in forensics to create a bit-for-bit copy (an image) of a drive or file. It is not used for displaying network connections.

D. “ifconfig” command:
This command is used to configure and display the status of network interfaces (like Ethernet or Wi-Fi adapters). It shows the IP address, subnet mask, and MAC address assigned to an interface, but it does not list open ports or active network connections.

Reference:
The use of netstat for live response and network forensics is a standard practice covered in digital forensic curricula and manuals, such as those from NIST and the SANS Institute. It is a fundamental tool for triaging a live system to understand its network state during an investigation.

Explanation:
This question specifically asks for a command that maps IP addresses to MAC addresses, which is a different task than showing network connections.

A. “arp” command:
This is the correct command. The ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is used to map a network layer address (IP address) to a data link layer address (MAC address). The arp command (specifically arp -a on Windows and Linux) displays the ARP cache/table of the local computer. This table shows the list of IP addresses of machines the local system has recently communicated with on the local network segment and their corresponding MAC (physical) addresses. This is directly used to identify which specific machines were communicating with the victim computer.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. “netstat –an” command:
As explained in the previous question, this command shows active network connections and listening ports (TCP/UDP), along with the remote IP addresses. It does not show the MAC addresses associated with those IPs.

C. “dd” command:
This is a data imaging and copying tool used for creating forensic duplicates of drives or files. It has no function related to displaying network information.

D. “ifconfig” command:
This command is used to configure and display the status of the computer's own network interfaces. It will show the MAC address and IP address of the victim computer itself, but it does not show the MAC addresses of other machines that were communicating with it.

Reference:
The use of the arp command for network forensics is a standard technique. It is covered in incident response and forensic guides (like those from SANS and NIST) to help build a picture of local network communication during an investigation, especially for identifying suspicious activity on the local subnet.

Explanation:
This question refers to the specific incident categorization and reporting requirements for U.S. Federal agencies as defined by the United States Computer Emergency Readiness Team (US-CERT), which is part of the Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA).

The key detail in the question is the two-hour reporting timeframe for a successful, ongoing Denial of Service (DoS) attack that the agency cannot mitigate.

According to the US-CERT Federal Government Incident Reporting Guidelines, incidents are categorized based on their impact and nature. A CAT 6 incident is defined as:

Category 6 (CAT 6): Denial of Service (DoS)

An attack that successfully impairs or halts the normal functionality of a system, network, or service.

It requires reporting within 2 hours of detection if the attack is ongoing and not successfully mitigated.

This perfectly matches the scenario described in the question.

Why the other categories are incorrect:

A. CAT 5 (Malicious Code):
This category is for incidents involving malware (e.g., worms, Trojan horses). It has different reporting criteria and does not fit a pure DoS attack.

B. CAT 1 (Unauthorized Access):
This category covers incidents where an attacker gains logical or physical access without permission. A DoS attack does not necessarily involve unauthorized access; its goal is disruption, not access.

C. CAT 2 (Inappropriate Usage):
This category involves a person violating acceptable computing use policies (e.g., using organizational resources for illegal activities). It does not describe an external DoS attack.

Reference:
This categorization is based on the U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) and US-CERT Federal Incident Notification Guidelines. The specific two-hour reporting requirement for an ongoing, unmitigated DoS attack is a defining characteristic of a CAT 6 incident in the federal government's incident reporting framework.

Explanation:
A Computer Security Incident Response Team (CSIRT) is not a one-size-fits-all entity. It is a functional team that can be established at various organizational and jurisdictional levels to address the specific security needs of that constituency.

Let's analyze the scope of each level:

A. Internal enterprise level:
This is the most common implementation. Organizations (corporations, universities, hospitals) create their own internal CSIRT to handle security incidents within their own network and for their own employees and assets.

B. National, government and military level:
At this level, a CSIRT serves an entire nation, a specific government, or a military branch. Examples include US-CERT (now part of CISA) for the United States or a national CERT/CSIRT responsible for coordinating the response to large-scale cyber incidents affecting the country.

C. Vendor level:
Many technology vendors and service providers (e.g., Microsoft, Cisco, Cloudflare) operate their own CSIRTs. These teams are responsible for handling security incidents related to their own products and services, such as vulnerability disclosures, supply chain attacks, or attacks leveraging their infrastructure.

Since CSIRTs can be, and are, effectively implemented at all these levels, the correct answer is D. All the above.

Reference:
This multi-level implementation model is defined in guides for creating CSIRTs, such as the CERT Division of the SEI (Software Engineering Institute) at Carnegie Mellon University handbook. It recognizes that incident response capabilities are needed wherever there is a defined community (a company, a country's citizens, a vendor's customer base) that requires coordinated support during a cybersecurity incident.

Explanation:
This question refers to the specific steps within the risk assessment process as defined by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). The process is outlined in documents such as NIST SP 800-30, "Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments."

Let's break down the relevant steps:

C. System characterization:
This is the correct answer. System characterization is the first and foundational step in the NIST risk assessment methodology. Its primary purpose is to define the scope of the assessment by identifying:

The system boundary (what is included and what is not).

The system resources (hardware, software, data).

The information processed, stored, and transmitted by the system.

The system's function and purpose.

Without this step, the assessment lacks a defined scope, making it impossible to accurately identify threats and vulnerabilities.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Likelihood Determination:
This step occurs later in the process. After vulnerabilities and threats have been identified, this step assesses the probability that a threat source will successfully exploit a vulnerability.

B. Control Recommendation:
This is one of the final steps. After risks have been identified and analyzed, this step involves recommending security controls to mitigate those risks to an acceptable level.

D. Control Analysis:
This step involves analyzing the security controls that are currently in place or planned for the system to determine their effectiveness in mitigating identified risks. This analysis logically comes after the system has been characterized and its vulnerabilities identified.

Reference:
NIST Special Publication 800-30, Revision 1, "Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments," clearly defines the steps. The process begins with Step 1: Prepare for Assessment, which includes defining the scope, and moves to Step 2: Conduct Assessment, where the first task is System Characterization. This step is critical for establishing the context for all subsequent analysis.

Explanation:
The question asks for the main feature of PGP Desktop Email, which is a specific implementation of the Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) encryption standard.

C. End-to-end secure email service:
This is the most precise and correct answer. PGP's primary function is to provide end-to-end security for email. This means it encrypts the email content on the sender's device and it can only be decrypted by the intended recipient's device. The email service provider (e.g., Gmail, Outlook) and any intermediaries see only encrypted, unreadable data during transit and while at rest on their servers. This feature provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication.

Why the other options are incorrect or less accurate:

A. Email service during incidents:
This is incorrect. PGP Desktop Email is a security software client, not an email service provider. It does not provide the email account or service itself; it secures the emails sent through existing email services.

B. End-to-end email communications:
While this phrase is similar, it is less specific and comprehensive than option C. "Secure" is the critical keyword that encompasses the core features of PGP: encryption for confidentiality and digital signatures for integrity and authentication. "Communications" alone could be misinterpreted to not fully capture the security aspect.
D. None of the above:
This is incorrect because option C accurately describes the main feature.

Reference:
The functionality of PGP is a cornerstone of email encryption. Its end-to-end secure model is documented in its official specifications and in general cybersecurity literature. The ECSA curriculum, which covers encryption tools, recognizes PGP as a primary method for achieving end-to-end security for email communication, ensuring that only the sender and recipient can read the message contents.

An Indication

System becomes instable or crashes

The risk is not present at this time

All the above