Myles, a security professional at an organization, provided laptops for all the employees to carry out the business processes from remote locations. While installing necessary applications required for the business, Myles has also installed antivirus software on each laptop following the company's policy to detect and protect the machines from external malicious events over the Internet. Identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario.
A. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.2
B. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.5
C. PCI-DSS requirement no 5.1
D. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.1
Explanation:
In the scenario, Myles, a security professional, has provided laptops to employees for remote work and installed antivirus software on each device to detect and protect against external malicious events over the Internet, in line with the company’s policy. This action aligns with a specific PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) requirement focused on protecting systems from malware.
PCI DSS Requirement Analysis:
PCI-DSS Requirement 5.1: "Protect all systems against malware and regularly update anti-virus software or programs." This requirement mandates that all systems, including those potentially handling cardholder data (e.g., laptops used in a business context), must have anti-malware solutions installed and actively running. These solutions should be capable of detecting, preventing, and removing malware, and they must be kept up to date. Myles’s action of installing antivirus software on all laptops to safeguard against internet-based threats directly fulfills this requirement, especially in a remote work environment where exposure to malware is a significant risk.
A. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.2:
"Restrict inbound and outbound traffic to that which is necessary for the cardholder data environment." This requirement focuses on network security controls, such as firewall rules and traffic filtering, to limit exposure of the cardholder data environment. It does not address the installation of antivirus software, making it irrelevant to Myles’s actions.
B. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.5:
"Document and implement procedures to ensure security controls (firewalls, etc.) are not bypassed." This requirement pertains to documenting and maintaining firewall and security control procedures to prevent bypasses. While important, it is unrelated to the installation of antivirus software.
D. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.1:
"Implement a DMZ to limit inbound and outbound traffic to only protocols that are necessary and supported." This requirement deals with network segmentation and the use of a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) to secure the cardholder data environment. It does not apply to antivirus deployment.
Why Requirement 5.1 Applies:
Myles’s installation of antivirus software on all laptops is a proactive measure to protect against malware, aligning with Requirement 5.1’s focus on safeguarding systems. This is particularly relevant for a remote workforce, where laptops may connect to unsecured networks, increasing the risk of malicious events. The company policy reinforces this as a standard practice, ensuring compliance with PCI DSS if the organization handles cardholder data (e.g., in e-commerce or payment processing).
Additional Context:
The scenario implies a PCI DSS-compliant environment, where protecting endpoints (laptops) from malware is critical, especially for remote workers.
Regular updates to the antivirus software (as implied by the policy) would further align with Requirement 5.2, but the initial installation is the key action described here, tying directly to 5.1.
Reference:
PCI DSS v4.0 Official Documentation: Requirement 5 - Protect All Systems Against Malware
CCNA 200-301 Context: Endpoint security aligns with network security fundamentals (e.g., Cisco Secure Endpoint solutions).
Leilani, a network specialist at an organization, employed Wireshark for observing network traffic. Leilani navigated to the Wireshark menu icon that contains items to manipulate, display and apply filters, enable, or disable the dissection of protocols, and configure user-specified decodes. Identify the Wireshark menu Leilani has navigated in the above scenario.
A. Statistics
B. Capture
C. Main toolbar
D. Analyze
Explanation:
In the scenario, Leilani, a network specialist, is using Wireshark to observe network traffic and navigates to a menu that contains options to manipulate, display, and apply filters, enable or disable the dissection of protocols, and configure user-specified decodes. This description aligns with the functionality provided by a specific Wireshark menu.
Wireshark Menu Analysis:
D. Analyze:
The Analyze menu in Wireshark is designed for advanced traffic analysis. It includes options such as:
Applying and managing display filters to focus on specific traffic.
Enabling or disabling protocol dissection to control how packets are interpreted.
Configuring user-specified decodes to customize protocol analysis.
Manipulating packet data through features like "Follow TCP Stream" or expert information.
This menu is tailored for in-depth packet inspection and protocol handling, matching Leilani’s described actions perfectly.
A. Statistics:
The Statistics menu provides tools to generate traffic summaries, protocol hierarchies, and conversation lists. While useful for observing network behavior, it focuses on aggregated data rather than real-time manipulation of filters, protocol dissection, or custom decodes, making it less relevant to the scenario.
B. Capture:
The Capture menu is used to start, stop, and configure packet capture sessions (e.g., selecting interfaces or setting capture filters). It does not include options for manipulating filters post-capture, enabling/disabling protocol dissection, or configuring decodes, so it does not fit the description.
C. Main toolbar:
The Main toolbar contains icons for quick access to common functions (e.g., start/stop capture, apply filters), but it is not a menu. It provides shortcuts rather than a comprehensive set of options for protocol dissection or custom decodes, making it incorrect.
Why Analyze is Correct:
Leilani’s use of Wireshark to observe network traffic and her navigation to a menu with options for filters, protocol dissection, and custom decodes points directly to the Analyze menu. This menu is essential for a network specialist performing detailed traffic analysis, allowing her to refine her view of the data and adjust how protocols are interpreted.
Reference:
Wireshark User’s Guide: Analyze Menu
CCNA 200-301 Context: Traffic analysis tools like Wireshark align with network troubleshooting skills (e.g., Cisco’s packet capture and analysis practices).
Hayes, a security professional, was tasked with the implementation of security controls for an industrial network at the Purdue level 3.5 (IDMZ). Hayes verified all the possible attack vectors on the IDMZ level and deployed a security control that fortifies the IDMZ against cyber-attacks. Identify the security control implemented by Hayes in the above scenario.
A. Point-to-point communication
B. MAC authentication
C. Anti-DoS solution
D. Use of authorized RTU and PLC commands
Explanation
The question centers on protecting the IDMZ (Industrial Demilitarized Zone), which is a critical security layer in the Purdue Model for Industrial Control Systems (ICS).
Understanding the IDMZ (Purdue Level 3.5):
The IDMZ is a neutral network segment that sits between the Enterprise Zone (Levels 4 and 5) and the Industrial Control System Zone (Levels 3 and below).
Its primary purpose is to isolate the OT (Operational Technology) network from the IT network while still allowing necessary data exchange.
It acts as a broker for all communication, preventing direct connections from the corporate network to critical control system assets like HMIs, historians, and controllers.
Attack Vectors on the IDMZ:
Since the IDMZ is the intermediary between the corporate IT network (which is often connected to the internet) and the sensitive OT network, it is a prime target for attacks originating from the enterprise side.
One of the most common and disruptive attacks it must defend against is a Denial-of-Service (DoS) or Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack. Such an attack could overwhelm the IDMZ's services (e.g., data diodes, replication servers, proxy services), causing a loss of data visibility for the enterprise and potentially disrupting the flow of data to the control system.
Why an Anti-DoS Solution is the Correct Control:
By deploying an Anti-DoS solution (which could include specialized firewalls, intrusion prevention systems, or scrubbing services), Hayes is directly "fortifying the IDMZ" against one of its most significant external threats.
This control ensures the availability and integrity of the data broker services within the IDMZ, maintaining the separation between IT and OT even under a volumetric attack.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. Point-to-point communication:
This is a communication methodology, not a security control that "fortifies" the IDMZ against attacks. While some IDMZ architectures use point-to-point communication for specific data flows, it is not the primary security control for the zone itself.
B. MAC authentication:
This is a port-level security control more commonly applied within the OT levels (e.g., Level 2 or 3) to ensure only authorized devices can connect to a switch. It is not the primary defensive control for the network perimeter and application layer represented by the IDMZ.
D. Use of authorized RTU and PLC commands:
This is a critical security control, but it is implemented at Purdue Level 1/0 (the Field/Process Control level) where RTUs and PLCs operate. It is designed to prevent unauthorized control commands from altering the physical process. It is not a control for the IDMZ (Level 3.5), which does not directly issue commands to field devices.
Reference:
Concept:
Purdue Enterprise Reference Architecture (PERA) and the Industrial Demilitarized Zone (IDMZ).
Core Principle:
The IDMZ's main role is secure segmentation and data brokering. Defending it requires controls that protect its availability and integrity from network-based attacks originating from the less-trusted enterprise network, making Anti-DoS a primary and appropriate security control.
Gideon, a forensic officer, was examining a victim's Linux system suspected to be involved in online criminal activities. Gideon navigated to a directory containing a log file that recorded information related to user login/logout. This information helped Gideon to determine the current login state of cyber criminals in the victim system, identify the Linux log file accessed by Gideon in this scenario.
A. /va r/l og /mysq Id. log
B. /va r/l og /wt m p
C. /ar/log/boot.iog
D. /var/log/httpd/
Explanation
The key clues in the scenario are:
"log file that recorded information related to user login/logout"
"determine the current login state of cyber criminals"
In Linux, different log files serve specific purposes for tracking user activity:
/var/log/wtmp is the permanent record of all user logins and logouts. It keeps a historical database of who logged in, from where, and for how long. Forensic tools like the last command are used to read this file. This directly provides the "login/logout" information and helps build a timeline of user presence on the system, which is crucial for the investigation.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. /var/log/mysqld.log:
This is the log file for the MySQL database server. It contains database-related queries, errors, and connections, not user login/logout information for the Linux system itself.
C. /var/log/boot.log:
This file contains messages related to the system startup (boot) process. It is used to diagnose boot-time issues and has no information about user logins.
D. /var/log/httpd/:
This is a directory (not a file) that contains log files for the Apache HTTP web server (often called access_log and error_log). These logs record web requests and server errors, not direct user logins to the Linux operating system.
Reference & Important Note
Concept:
Linux System Logs for Forensics.
Related File:
It's important to distinguish wtmp from utmp.
/var/run/utmp:
This file records information about currently logged-in users. The who command reads this file. However, this file is not persistent and is cleared at reboot.
/var/log/wtmp:
This is the historical, persistent record of all logins/logouts, which is exactly what a forensic officer like Gideon would analyze after the fact to determine past activity, making it the correct answer for this scenario.
A web application, www.moviescope.com, was found to be prone to SQL injection attacks. You are tasked to exploit the web application and fetch the user data. Identify the contact number (Contact) of a user, Steve, in the movie scope database. Note: You already have an account on the web application, and your credentials are sam/test. (Practical Question)
A. 1-202-509-7316
B. 1-202-509-7432
C. 01-202-509-7364
D. 1-202-509-8421
Explanation
This is a hands-on practical simulation where you must:
Log in to the Application:
Use the provided credentials sam / test to gain access to www.moviescope.com.
Locate the SQL Injection Point:
Find a user input field (like a search box, login form, or filter) that is vulnerable to SQL injection. This means it unsafely incorporates user input directly into a database query.
Craft the Exploit:
You would use a technique like a UNION-based SQL injection. This allows you to append a secondary SELECT query to the original one, forcing the application to return data from other tables in the database.
Structure the Attack:
A typical attack sequence would look like this:
First, you need to determine the number of columns the original query returns. This is done by injecting ' ORDER BY 1--, ' ORDER BY 2--, etc., until an error occurs.
Once the number of columns is known (e.g., 3 columns), you can use a UNION SELECT statement to extract information from the database's system tables (like information_schema), which hold the names of all other tables and columns.
You would query to find a table name that likely contains user data (e.g., users, accounts, tbl_customers) and then identify the relevant columns (e.g., username, contact, phone).
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. 1-202-509-7432, C. 01-202-509-7364, D. 1-202-509-8421:
These are contact numbers for other users in the database or are decoy values. The specific, successful exploitation of the SQL injection vulnerability to target the user 'Steve' returns the value in option A.
Leo has walked to the nearest supermarket to purchase grocery. At the billing section, the billing executive scanned each product's machine-readable tag against a readable machine that automatically reads the product details, displays the prices of the individual product on the computer, and calculates the sum of those scanned items. Upon completion of scanning all the products, Leo has to pay the bill. Identify the type of short-range wireless communication technology that the billing executive has used in the above scenario.
A. Radio-frequency identification (RFID)
B. Near-field communication (NFC)
C. QUIC
D. QR codes and barcodes
Explanation:
In the scenario, Leo is at a supermarket where the billing executive scans each product's machine-readable tag using a device that automatically reads product details, displays prices, and calculates the total. This process describes a short-range wireless communication technology used for inventory and checkout systems. Let’s evaluate the options:
A. Radio-frequency identification (RFID):
RFID uses radio waves to identify and track tags attached to objects. In a supermarket, RFID tags on products are scanned by a reader, which retrieves data (e.g., product ID, price) without direct line-of-sight, automatically updating the billing system. This matches the scenario’s description of a machine-readable tag being scanned to display and calculate prices, making it the most appropriate technology.
B. Near-field communication (NFC):
NFC is a subset of RFID that requires close proximity (typically within 4 cm) and is often used for contactless payments (e.g., mobile wallets) or pairing devices. While it could be part of a payment step after billing, the scenario focuses on scanning product tags for pricing and calculation, which is not NFC’s primary use case in this context.
C. QUIC:
QUIC (Quick UDP Internet Connections) is a transport layer network protocol designed to improve web performance (e.g., reducing latency for HTTPS). It is not a short-range wireless communication technology and is irrelevant to supermarket billing systems.
D. QR codes and barcodes:
QR codes and barcodes are optical, machine-readable labels that require line-of-sight scanning (e.g., with a laser or camera). While barcodes are commonly used in supermarkets, they are not wireless technologies—they rely on physical scanning rather than radio waves. The term "machine-readable tag" and "automatically reads" suggest a wireless technology like RFID, not optical scanning.
Why RFID is Correct:
The phrase "machine-readable tag" and the automated process of reading product details without specifying line-of-sight scanning align with RFID technology. Modern supermarkets increasingly use RFID for efficient inventory management and checkout, where tags are read wirelessly by a reader, feeding data to the billing system in real-time. This fits the scenario’s description of displaying prices and calculating the sum automatically.
Additional Context:
Current Date (October 10, 2025, 02:42 PM PKT):
RFID adoption in retail has grown, with many supermarkets implementing it for faster checkouts and inventory tracking, supporting this as a plausible technology.
CCNA 200-301 Context:
While not a core focus, understanding RFID aligns with network-enabled IoT devices and wireless technologies covered in the curriculum.
Reference:
RFID Journal: How RFID Works in Retail
CCNA 200-301: Wireless LAN fundamentals (e.g., IoT and RFID basics).
Giovanni, a system administrator, was tasked with configuring permissions for employees working on a new project. Hit organization used active directories (ADs) to grant/deny permissions to resources Giovanni created a folder for AD users with the required permissions and added all employees working on the new project in it. Identify the type of account created by Giovanni in this scenario.
A. Third-party account
B. Croup-based account
C. Shared account
D. Application account
Explanation
The scenario describes a fundamental and recommended practice in identity and access management (IAM), especially within an Active Directory environment.
The Core Concept - Group-Based Permissions:
The most efficient way to manage permissions for multiple users is not to assign permissions to individual user accounts directly, but to use groups.
In this case, Giovanni did not create a new user account. He created a security group within Active Directory.
Analyzing the Steps:
"Created a folder for AD users": This means he created a directory (e.g., \\server\ProjectX) and set permissions on it.
"Added all employees working on the new project in it": This is the key action. He did not assign permissions user-by-user. Instead, he placed the individual user accounts into a single group.
"Grant/deny permissions to resources": Finally, he assigned the required permissions (e.g., "Modify," "Read & Execute") to the folder, but he assigned these permissions to the group he created.
This creates a logical and manageable structure:
Resource:
Project Folder
Permission Assignment:
Granted to the "Project_Alpha_Team" Group
User Access:
All members of the "Project_Alpha_Team" Group inherit the permissions.
This is the definition of a group-based account or more accurately, managing access via group membership.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Third-party account:
This is an account used by an external vendor, service, or partner to access specific resources. It is not an internal group created to manage internal employee permissions for a project.
C. Shared account:
This is a single account (e.g., guest_wi-fi) that is used by multiple people. This is a poor security practice as it violates the principle of accountability (you cannot trace an action back to a specific individual). Giovanni added individual employees to a group, which maintains individual accountability.
D. Application account:
This is a service account used by an application or a service (e.g., a web server or a database) to run processes and access other resources. It is not used for grouping human users for file access.
Reference:
Concept:
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) and Active Directory Group Management.
Core Principle:
The best practice in access management is AGDLP (Accounts go into Global groups, which go into Domain Local groups, which are assigned Permissions). Giovanni's action is a direct application of this principle, using a group to simplify and centralize permission management.
Dany, a member of a forensic team, was actively involved in an online crime investigation process. Dany's main responsibilities included providing legal advice on conducting the investigation and addressing legal issues involved in the forensic investigation process. Identify the role played by Dany in the above scenario.
A. Attorney
B. Incident analyzer
C. Expert witness
D. Incident responder
Explanation
The scenario highlights two key responsibilities that are uniquely characteristic of a legal advisor:
"Providing legal advice on conducting the investigation": This involves guiding the forensic team on how to perform their duties in a way that is legally sound and admissible in court. This includes advice on obtaining proper warrants, ensuring the chain of custody is maintained, and respecting privacy laws and regulations.
"Addressing legal issues involved in the forensic investigation process": This is the core function of a legal professional. They identify and navigate potential legal pitfalls, such as disputes over attorney-client privilege, jurisdictional challenges, or compliance with rules of evidence.
This combination of providing proactive legal guidance and handling reactive legal problems squarely places Dany in the role of a legal advisor or attorney to the investigation team.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Incident Analyzer:
This role is primarily technical. An incident analyzer (or forensic analyst) focuses on the "how" and "what" of the incident—examining malware, analyzing log files, and determining the scope and impact of the breach. They do not provide legal advice.
C. Expert Witness:
An expert witness is a specialist (e.g., a forensic analyst, a network engineer) who is called upon to provide their expert technical opinion in a court of law. While an attorney might work with an expert witness, the expert witness's role is to testify, not to provide overarching legal advice on how to run the investigation.
D. Incident Responder:
This is an operational role focused on containing and mitigating an active security incident. Their tasks include isolating affected systems, eradicating threats, and recovering services. This is a "hands-on-keyboard" technical role, not a legal advisory one.
Reference:
Concept:
Roles and Responsibilities in a Digital Forensics Team.
Core Principle:
A successful forensic investigation requires a multi-disciplinary team. The Attorney or Legal Advisor ensures that the entire process is conducted within the bounds of the law, preserving the integrity and admissibility of the evidence collected by the technical team.
Johnson, an attacker, performed online research for the contact details of reputed cybersecurity firms. He found the contact number of sibertech.org and dialed the number, claiming himself to represent a technical support team from a vendor. He warned that a specific server is about to be compromised and requested sibertech.org to follow the provided instructions. Consequently, he prompted the victim to execute unusual commands and install malicious files, which were then used to collect and pass critical Information to Johnson's machine. What is the social engineering technique Steve employed in the above scenario?
A. Quid pro quo
B. Diversion theft
C. Elicitation
D. Phishing
Explanation
The term "Quid pro quo" is a Latin phrase meaning "something for something." In social engineering, this technique involves a mutual exchange where the attacker offers a service or benefit in return for information or access.
Let's break down the scenario to see how it fits:
The Offer:
Johnson initiates contact, posing as a technical support agent. He offers a service: a warning that "a specific server is about to be compromised."
The Exchange (The "Quid" for the "Quo"):
What Johnson offers (the "Quid"):
He provides a (false) sense of urgency and valuable assistance by warning about a potential security threat.
What Johnson requests in return (the "Quo"):
He asks the victim to "follow the provided instructions," which involve executing unusual commands and installing files.
The Outcome:
The victim, believing they are receiving legitimate help to prevent an attack, performs the actions that ultimately compromise their own system.
This direct exchange of a promised service for compliance is the hallmark of a Quid pro quo attack.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Diversion theft:
This technique involves tricking a delivery or transport company into sending a shipment to a different location. It is primarily a physical crime related to logistics and has no relevance to this phone-based, technical deception.
C. Elicitation:
This is the subtle extraction of information through casual conversation, without the target realizing they are being manipulated. While Johnson is gathering information, he is not doing it subtly through conversation; he is using a direct ruse and issuing commands. The primary goal here is to install malware, not just to casually extract data through talk.
D. Phishing:
This is a broad term for fraudulent attempts to obtain sensitive information, typically done through mass-emailed messages that impersonate a legitimate entity and contain malicious links or attachments. The key difference here is the targeted, direct, and interactive nature of the phone call. A more precise term for this would be vishing (voice phishing), but the specific "offer for an action" dynamic makes Quid pro quo the best and most specific answer. Phishing is often a one-way broadcast, while Quid pro quo is an interactive exchange.
Reference:
Concept:
Social Engineering Attack Techniques.
Core Principle:
A Quid pro quo attack relies on the human tendency to reciprocate. The attacker presents themselves as providing a helpful or critical service, creating a sense of obligation in the victim to comply with the subsequent request.
ProNet, a leading technology firm, has been dynamically evolving its internal infrastructure to cater to an expanding workforce and changing business needs. The company's current project involves enhancing the overall security of its internal platforms. The company’s security team is focusing on a robust access control system. To make the system efficient, it needs to implement a model that would define access based on roles within the organization, where specific roles would have predefined access to certain resources, and the roles can be assigned to multiple users. The aim is to decrease the administrative work involved in assigning permissions and ensure that users gain only the necessary permissions in line with their job functions. Which access control model best suits ProNet's requirement?
A. Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
B. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
C. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
D. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
Explanation
The scenario provides several key requirements that directly align with the core principles of Role-Based Access Control (RBAC):
"Define access based on roles within the organization": This is the fundamental definition of RBAC. Permissions are assigned to roles, not directly to individual users.
"Specific roles would have predefined access to certain resources": In RBAC, administrators create roles (e.g., "HR Manager," "Developer," "Finance Clerk") and pre-define the exact permissions each role needs.
"The roles can be assigned to multiple users": This is a primary efficiency gain of RBAC. When a new employee joins, they are simply assigned one or more roles, and they automatically inherit all the permissions associated with those roles.
"Decrease the administrative work involved in assigning permissions": RBAC drastically reduces administrative overhead. Instead of managing permissions for hundreds of individual users, administrators only manage the permissions for a limited set of roles. When a user's job function changes, only their role assignment needs to be updated.
"Ensure that users gain only the necessary permissions in line with their job functions": This embodies the security principle of least privilege. RBAC is designed to enforce this by ensuring users only have the access required by their assigned role(s).
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC):
ABAC is a more dynamic and granular model that uses policies which evaluate attributes (e.g., user's department, time of day, location, resource sensitivity). While powerful, it is more complex to implement and manage than RBAC. The scenario does not mention a need for this level of dynamic, context-aware control; it specifically calls for a simpler, role-centric model.
B. Discretionary Access Control (DAC):
In a DAC model, the owner of a resource (e.g., a file or folder) decides who has access to it. This is decentralized and would lead to inconsistent permission enforcement, increasing administrative overhead rather than decreasing it. It does not align with the requirement for a centralized, role-based system.
D. Mandatory Access Control (MAC):
MAC is a rigid, non-discretionary model used in highly secure environments like military or government systems. Access is based on security clearance levels (e.g., Confidential, Secret, Top Secret) and labels on data. It is not based on business roles and is too inflexible for the dynamic needs of a typical technology firm like ProNet.
Reference:
Concept:
Access Control Models.
Core Principle:
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is the industry standard for enterprise security where the goal is to efficiently manage user permissions based on their job functions, thereby enforcing the principle of least privilege and significantly reducing administrative complexity.
A renowned research institute with a high-security wireless network recently encountered an advanced cyber attack. The attack was not detected by traditional security measures and resulted in significant data exfiltration. The wireless network was equipped with WPA3 encryption, MAC address filtering, and had disabled SSID broadcasting. Intriguingly. the attack occurred without any noticeable disruption or changes in network performance. After an exhaustive forensic analysis, the cybersecurity team pinpointed the attack method. Which of the following wireless network-specific attacks was most likely used?
A. Jamming Attack, disrupting network communications with interference signals
B. Evil Twin Attack, where a rogue access point mimics a legitimate one to capture network traffic
C. Bluesnarfing. exploiting Bluetooth connections to access network data
D. KRACK (Key Reinstallation Attack), exploiting vulnerabilities in the WPA2 protocol
Explanation
The scenario contains several critical clues that point directly to an Evil Twin Attack:
"Not detected by traditional security measures": An Evil Twin is a rogue access point that looks identical to the legitimate one. It doesn't typically trigger IDS/IPS alerts based on malicious packets because the attack vector is the AP itself, not a payload.
"WPA3 encryption, MAC address filtering, and had disabled SSID broadcasting": The attacker bypassed all these defenses.
WPA3:
An Evil Twin doesn't break WPA3; it creates a new network with the same SSID, often without password protection or with a weaker one, tricking users into connecting to it instead.
MAC Filtering:
This is easily defeated by monitoring the air to see which MAC addresses are connected to the real network and then spoofing one of them on the Evil Twin.
Disabled SSID:
This provides a false sense of security. The "hidden" SSID is easily discovered with wireless sniffing tools as it is still broadcast in probe requests and responses.
"Without any noticeable disruption or changes in network performance": An Evil Twin operates in parallel to the legitimate network. Users voluntarily connect to the rogue AP, so there is no denial-of-service or noticeable performance hit on the main network. The attack is stealthy and passive once the user is connected.
"Resulted in significant data exfiltration": Once a user connects to the Evil Twin, the attacker acts as a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM). All of the victim's unencrypted traffic (and sometimes even encrypted traffic through SSL stripping) can be captured, monitored, and exfiltrated.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Jamming Attack:
A jamming attack uses radio interference to cause a Denial-of-Service (DoS), disrupting all wireless communications. The scenario explicitly states there was "no noticeable disruption," which directly contradicts the fundamental nature of jamming.
C. Bluesnarfing:
This is an attack against Bluetooth devices, not Wi-Fi networks. The scenario is exclusively about a high-security wireless (Wi-Fi) network, making this irrelevant.
D. KRACK (Key Reinstallation Attack):
This is a specific cryptographic attack against the WPA2 protocol's 4-way handshake. The scenario states the network was equipped with WPA3, which was specifically designed to be immune to KRACK attacks. Therefore, this attack would not have been successful.
Reference:
Concept:
Wireless Network Attacks and Rogue Access Points.
Core Principle:
An Evil Twin Attack is a social engineering and technical attack that bypasses cryptographic and low-level network security by tricking the end-user (or their device) into associating with a malicious access point. Its success relies on deception rather than breaking encryption, making it a stealthy and highly effective threat even against "secured" networks.
A global financial services firm Is revising its cybersecurity policies to comply with a diverse range of international regulatory frameworks and laws. The firm operates across multiple continents, each with distinct legal requirements concerning data protection, privacy, and cybersecurity. As part of their compliance strategy, they are evaluating various regulatory frameworks to determine which ones are most critical to their operations. Given the firm's international scope and the nature of its services, which of the following regulatory frameworks should be prioritized for compliance?
A. ISO 27001 Information Security Management System
B. ISO 27002 Code of Practice for information security controls
C. Qceneral Data Protection Regulation (CDPR) - European Union
D. NIST Cybersecurity Framework
Explanation
For a global financial services firm, the need to prioritize is driven by the framework with the broadest jurisdictional reach, highest potential penalties, and most stringent requirements.
Extraterritorial Scope:
The GDPR is not just a European law. It applies to any organization that offers goods or services to, or monitors the behavior of, individuals in the European Union (EU), regardless of where the organization itself is located. A global financial firm will almost certainly have EU customers or operations, making compliance mandatory.
Severe Penalties:
Non-compliance with the GDPR can result in astronomical fines—up to €20 million or 4% of the company's total global annual turnover, whichever is higher. This financial risk alone makes it a top priority.
Stringent Data Protection Requirements:
The GDPR sets a high bar for data protection, privacy by design, data subject rights (like the right to be forgotten), and breach notification. Complying with GDPR often means a company's data handling practices will meet or exceed the requirements of many other regional laws.
Prioritizing GDPR ensures the firm can legally operate in and serve the EU market, which is a major economic bloc, and establishes a strong baseline for global data protection.
Why the Other Options Are Less of a Priority in this Context:
A. ISO 27001 Information Security Management System & B. ISO 27002 Code of Practice for information security controls:
These are critically important best-practice standards for building a robust security program. However, they are voluntary and certifiable standards, not laws or regulations. A company chooses to implement them to demonstrate security maturity. They should be part of the firm's strategy, but they do not carry the force of law like the GDPR. Compliance with a law must be prioritized over certification to a standard.
D. NIST Cybersecurity Framework:
This is a highly respected and excellent framework of guidelines developed by the U.S. National Institute of Standards and Technology. It is widely adopted, especially by U.S. federal agencies and critical infrastructure. However, it is primarily a voluntary framework to help manage cybersecurity risk. While it may be required for certain U.S. government contractors, it does not have the same legally binding, global reach and severe financial penalties as the GDPR.
Reference:
Concept:
Global Information Security Regulations and Compliance Prioritization.
Core Principle:
When operating internationally, a company must first prioritize compliance with binding laws and regulations that have extraterritorial application and severe penalties. The GDPR is the prime example of such a regulation in the realm of data protection and privacy. A robust ISMS (like ISO 27001) can be the method to achieve compliance, but the GDPR is the legal requirement that must be met.
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