When deploying SandBlast, how would a Threat Emulation appliance benefit from the integration of Threat Cloud?

A. ThreatCloud is a database-related application which is located on-premise to preserve privacy of company-related data

B. ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for all the CheckPoint customers to form a virtual cloud consisting of a combination of all on-premise private cloud environments

C. ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for Check Point customers to benefit from VMWare ESXi infrastructure which supports the Threat Emulation Appliances as virtual machines in the EMC Cloud

D. ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for all the Check Point customers to share information about malicious and benign files that all of the customers can benefit from as it makes emulation of known files unnecessary

What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R81.20?

A. Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled

B. Translate Destination on Client Side should be configured

C. fw ctl proxy should be configured

D. local.arp file must always be configured

In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Stateful Mode configuration, chain modules marked with __________________ will not apply.

A. ffff

B. 1

C. 3

D. 2

Tom has connected to the R81 Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward.
What will happen to the changes already made?

A. Tom’s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

B. Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C. Tom’s changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D. Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear to cache, and restore changes.

Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

A. ThreatWiki

B. Whitelist Files

C. AppWiki

D. IPS Protections

On what port does the CPM process run?

A. TCP 857

B. TCP 18192

C. TCP 900

D. TCP 19009

Which of the following is NOT an alert option?

A. SNMP

B. High alert

C. Mail

D. User defined alert

One of major features in R81 SmartConsole is concurrent administration.
Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

A. A lock icon shows that a rule or an object is locked and will be available.

B. AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C. A lock icon next to a rule informs that any Administrator is working on this particular rule.

D. AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

A. INSPECT Engine

B. Stateful Inspection

C. Packet Filtering

D. Application Layer Firewall

What is the command to show SecureXL status?

A. fwaccel status

B. fwaccel stats -m

C. fwaccel -s

D. fwaccel stat

fwssd is a child process of which of the following Check Point daemons?

A. fwd

B. cpwd

C. fwm

D. cpd

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidates management console. CPM allows the GUI client and management server to communicate via web services using ___________.

A. TCP port 19009

B. TCP Port 18190

C. TCP Port 18191

D. TCP Port 18209